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mars1129 [50]
3 years ago
12

What Kinetic energy is exactly equal to Gravitational Potential Energy why is height halfway between the maximum height?

Physics
1 answer:
prohojiy [21]3 years ago
5 0

Explanation:

Let us calculate the work done in lifting an object of mass m through a height h, such as in Figure 1. If the object is lifted straight up at constant speed, then the force needed to lift it is equal to its weight mg. The work done on the mass is then W = Fd = mgh. We define this to be the gravitational potential energy (PEg) put into (or gained by) the object-Earth system. This energy is associated with the state of separation between two objects that attract each other by the gravitational force

Potential energy is a property of a system rather than of a single object—due to its physical position. An object’s gravitational potential is due to its position relative to the surroundings within the Earth-object system. The force applied to the object is an external force, from outside the system. When it does positive work it increases the gravitational potential energy of the system. Because gravitational potential energy depends on relative position, we need a reference level at which to set the potential energy equal to 0. We usually choose this point to be Earth’s surface, but this point is arbitrary; what is important is the difference in gravitational potential energy, because this difference is what relates to the work done. The difference in gravitational potential energy of an object (in the Earth-object system) between two rungs of a ladder will be the same for the first two rungs as for the last two rungs.

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A 33.0-kg child starting from rest slides down a water slide with a vertical height of 15.0 m. (Neglect friction.)
Temka [501]

This question involves the concept of the conservation of energy.

(a) The child's speed halfway will be "12.13 m/s".

(b) The child's speed three-fourth way will be "14.86 m/s".

(a)

Using the <em>law of conservation of energy</em>:

Potential Energy Lost = Kinetic Energy Gained

mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\2gh = v^2\\\\v = \sqrt{2gh}

where,

v = speed = ?

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

h = height lost = halfway = height/2 = 15 m/2 = 7.5 m

Therefore,

v = \sqrt{(2)(9.81\ m/s^2)(7.5\ m)}

<u>v = 12.13 m/s</u>

<u />

(b)

Using the <em>law of conservation of energy</em>:

Potential Energy Lost = Kinetic Energy Gained

mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\2gh = v^2\\\\v = \sqrt{2gh}

where,

v = speed = ?

g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

h = height lost = three-fourth way down = \frac{3}{4}height = \frac{3}{4}(15\ m) = 11.25\ m

Therefore,

v = \sqrt{(2)(9.81\ m/s^2)(11.25\ m)}

<u>v = 14.86 m/s</u>

<u />

Learn more about the <em>law of conservation</em> of energy here:

brainly.com/question/20971995?referrer=searchResults

The attached picture shows the <em>law of conservation of energy</em>.

7 0
3 years ago
What is the % error in using g = 10.0 m/s^2? (Take the value ofg as 9.8 m/s^2)
Alenkasestr [34]

Answer:

So percentage error will be 2 %

Explanation:

We have given initial value of acceleration due to gravity g=10m/sec^2

And final value of acceleration due to gravity g=9.8m/sec^2

We have to find the percentage error

We know that percentage error is given by percentage\ error=\frac{initial\ value-final\ value}{initial\ value}\times 100

So percentage\ error=\frac{10-9.8}{10}\times 100=2 %

4 0
3 years ago
How does porosity relate to permeability?
Nadya [2.5K]
 the less porous, the less permeable
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Place the single weight with a known mass on the spring and release it. Eventually, the weight will come to rest at an equilibri
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

X=m*g/K

Explanation:

Since the elastic force of the spring is balancing the force of gravity:

Fe = m*g

Now, on the spring by Hook's law, the magnitude of the elastic force will be:

Fe = K*X     where K is the elastic constant of the spring and X is the distance the spring is strectches measured from its original lenght to its current length.

Replacing this value:

K*X = m*g   Solving for X:

X = m*g/K    This value is directly proportional to the object's weight and inversely proportional to the spring's constant.

3 0
4 years ago
The MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) body scanners used in hospitals operate at a frequency of 400 MHz (M = 106 ). Calculate the
horrorfan [7]

Answer:

Energy, E=2.65\times 10^{-25}\ J

Explanation:

It is given that,

The MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) body scanners used in hospitals operate at a frequency of 400 MHz,

\nu=400\ MHz=400\times 10^6\ Hz=4\times 10^8\ Hz

We need to find the energy for a photon having this frequency. The energy of a photon is given by :

E=h\nu

E=6.63\times 10^{-34}\ J-s\times 4\times 10^8\ Hz

E=2.65\times 10^{-25}\ J

So, the energy of the photon is 2.65\times 10^{-25}\ J. Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0
3 years ago
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