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2 years ago

A sound wave moving with a speed of 1500 m/s is sent from a submarine to the ocean floor. It reflects off the

Physics

1 answer:

Alekssandra [29.7K]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

the distance between the submarine and the ocean floor is 11,250 m

Explanation:

Given;

speed of the wave, v = 1500 m/s

time of motion of the wave, t = 15 s

The time taken to receive the echo is calculated as;

$time \ of \ motion \ (t) = \frac{total \ distance }{speed \ of \ wave} = \frac{2d}{v} \\\\2d = vt\\\\d = \frac{vt}{2} \\\\d = \frac{1500 \times 15}{2} \\\\d = 11,250 \ m$

Therefore, the distance between the submarine and the ocean floor is 11,250 m

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What are possible units for impulse? Check all that apply.

Neporo4naja [7]

Units of impulse: N • s, kg • meters per second

Explanation:

Impulse is defined in two ways:

Impulse is defined as the product between the force exerted in a collision and the duration of the collision:

$I=F\Delta t$

where

F is the force

$\Delta t$ is the time interval

Since the force is measured in Newtons (N) and the time is measured in seconds (s), the units for the impulse are

$[I] = [N][s]$

So,

N • s

Impulse is also defined as the change in momentum experienced by an object:

$I=\Delta p$

where the change in momentum is given by

$\Delta p = m\Delta v$

where m is the mass and $\Delta v$ is the change in velocity.

The mass is measured in kilograms (kg) while the change in velocity is measured in metres per second (m/s), therefore the units for impulse are

$[I]=[kg][m/s]$

so,

kg • meters per second

Learn more about impulse:

brainly.com/question/9484203

#LearnwithBrainly

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Find the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, I0 for a lamina that occupies the part of the disk x2 y2 ≤ 36 in the first quadrant if the d

Tasya [4]

Answer:

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(y) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$

Explanation:

Given data

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 36

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 6^2

to find out

the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, Io

solution

first we consider the polar coordinate (a,θ)

and polar is directly proportional to a²

so p = k × a²

so that

x = a cosθ

y = a sinθ

dA = adθda

I(x) = ∫y²pdA

take limit 0 to 6 for a and o to $\pi /2$ for θ

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ y²p dA

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (a sinθ)²(k × a²) adθda

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (sin²θ)dθ

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (1-cos2θ)/2 dθ

I(x) = k $({r}^{6}/6)^(5)_0$ × ${θ/2 - sin2θ/4}^{\pi /2}_0$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{6}/6)$ × ( ${\pi /4} - sin\pi /4)$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{5})$ × ${\pi /4}$

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$ .....................1

and we can say I(x) = I(y) by the symmetry rule

and here I(o) will be I(x) + I(y) i.e

I(o) = 2 × 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$ ......................2

3 0

3 years ago

CAN SOMEONE HELP ME PLEASE ASAP

Lady_Fox [76]

The third choice is correct

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An electron moving in the direction of the +x-axis enters a magnetic field. If the electron experiences a magnetic deflection in

Gnom [1K]

Answer:

Explanation:

According to the left hand rule for an electron in a magnetic field, hold the thumb of the left hand at a right angle to the rest of the fingers, and the rest of the fingers parallel to one another. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the electron. In this case, the left hand will be held out with the thumb pointing to the right (+x axis), and the palm facing your body (-y axis). The magnetic field indicated by the other fingers will point down in the the -z axis.

5 0

2 years ago

Two particles with the same charge will repel each other. True or false

FinnZ [79.3K]

True. Think of a magnet and how they only connect to the opposite charges.

7 0

3 years ago