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xeze [42]
3 years ago
10

An object starts at rest then accelerates at a rate of 5m/s^2 for 1 second and then 2m/s^2 for 2 seconds. What is the average ac

celeration over time (t€[0,3]
Physics
1 answer:
inn [45]3 years ago
7 0

Acceleration = (change in speed) / (time for the change)

-- during the first second, the object increases its speed to

(5 m/s²) · (1 s) = 5 m/s .

-- During the next 2 seconds, the object increases its speed by

(2 m/s²) · ( s) = 4 m/s

So at the end of the whole 3 seconds, its speed is (5 m/s) + (4 m/s) = 9 m/s

-- Over the whole time, its speed has changed from zero to 9 m/s.

Acceleration = (change in speed) / (time for the change)

Acceleration = (9 m/s) / (3 sec)

<em>Acceleration = 3 m/s²</em>

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A solid sphere, a solid disk, and a thin hoop are all released from rest at the top of the incline (h0 = 20.0 cm).
Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

a. The object with the smallest rotational inertia, the thin hoop

b. The object with the smallest rotational inertia, the thin hoop

c.  The rotational speed of the sphere is 55.8 rad/s and Its translational speed is 1.67 m/s

Explanation:

a. Without doing any calculations, decide which object would be spinning the fastest when it gets to the bottom. Explain.

Since the thin has the smallest rotational inertia. This is because, since kinetic energy of a rotating object K = 1/2Iω² where I = rotational inertia and ω = angular speed.

ω = √2K/I

ω ∝ 1/√I

since their kinetic energy is the same, so, the thin hoop which has the smallest rotational inertia spins fastest at the bottom.

b. Again, without doing any calculations, decide which object would get to the bottom first.

Since the acceleration of a rolling object a = gsinФ/(1 + I/MR²), and all three objects have the same kinetic energy, the object with the smallest rotational inertia has the largest acceleration.

This is because a ∝ 1/(1 + I/MR²) and the object with the smallest rotational inertia  has the smallest ratio for I/MR² and conversely small 1 + I/MR² and thus largest acceleration.

So, the object with the smallest rotational inertia gets to the bottom first.

c. Assuming all objects are rolling without slipping, have a mass of 2.00 kg and a radius of 3.00 cm, find the rotational and translational speed at the bottom of the incline of any one of these three objects.

We know the kinetic energy of a rolling object K = 1/2Iω²  + 1/2mv² where I = rotational inertia and ω = angular speed, m = mass and v = velocity of center of mass = rω where r = radius of object

The kinetic energy K = potential energy lost = mgh where h = 20.0 cm = 0.20 m and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

So, mgh =  1/2Iω²  + 1/2mv² =  1/2Iω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

Let I = moment of inertia of sphere = 2mr²/5 where r = radius of sphere = 3.00 cm = 0.03 m and m = mass of sphere = 2.00 kg

So, mgh = 1/2Iω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = 1/2(2mr²/5 )ω²  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = mr²ω²/5  + 1/2mr²ω²

mgh = 7mr²ω²/10

gh = 7r²ω²/10

ω² = 10gh/7r²

ω = √(10gh/7) ÷ r

substituting the values of the variables, we have

ω = √(10 × 9.8 m/s² × 0.20 m/7) ÷ 0.03 m

= 1.673 m/s ÷ 0.03 m

= 55.77 rad/s

≅ 55.8 rad/s

So, its rotational speed is 55.8 rad/s

Its translational speed v = rω

= 0.03 m × 55.8 rad/s

= 1.67 m/s

So, its rotational speed is of the sphere is 55.8 rad/s and Its translational speed is 1.67 m/s

6 0
2 years ago
Please help me with this
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Answer:

the answer is UV Radiation

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3 years ago
According to Kepler's Second Law the radius vector drawn from the Sun to a planet Multiple Choice is the same for all planets. s
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

sweeps out equal areas in equal times.

Explanation:

As we know that there is no torque due to Sun on the planets revolving about the sun

so we will have

\tau_{net} = 0

now we have

\frac{dL}{dt}= 0

now we also know that

Area = \frac{1}{2}r^2d\theta

so rate of change in area is given as

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\frac{d\theta}{dt}

so we will have

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{1}{2}r^2\omega

\frac{dA}{dt} = \frac{L}{2m}

since angular momentum and mass is constant here so

all planets sweeps out equal areas in equal times.

4 0
3 years ago
In physics, why would an equation like y=mx+b be plotted as a straight line rather than as a parabola, as is done in math?
notka56 [123]

Answer:

Explanation:

In Both Physics and Math

y=mx+b is plotted as straight line where

m=slope of line

b=intercept on Y-axis

whereas Equation of parabola is something like this

y^2=4ax

or

x^2=4ay

Math is a tool to solve Physics problems so equations are same in math and physics

3 0
3 years ago
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