Answer:
5.80% probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each resume received by the corporation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are from a female, or they are not. The probability of a resume received being from a female is independent from other resumes. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
22% of all resumes received by a corporation for a management position are from females.
This means that 
18 resumes will be received tomorrow.
This means that 
What is the probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females?
This is P(X = 1).


5.80% probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females.
2x + 3y = 45
x + y = 10......y = 10 - x
2x + 3(10 - x) = 45
2x + 30 - 3x = 45
-x + 30 = 45
-x = 45 - 30
-x = 15
x = -15 <====
and y = 25
Answer:
-15
Step-by-step explanation:
start from the inside and go out.
So first plug in -3 into g(x)
g(-3) = -3 - 7 = -10
then plug in -10 into f(x)
f(-10) = 2(-10) + 5 = -15
so f(g(x)) = -15
Answer: Dividing two fractions is the same as multiplying the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second fraction. The first step to dividing fractions is to find the reciprocal (reverse the numerator and denominator) of the second fraction. Next, multiply the two numerators. Then, multiply the two denominators.
Step-by-step explanation: