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stira [4]
3 years ago
15

The eficiency of a simple machine can never be 100% why?​

Physics
1 answer:
Kitty [74]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Systems always tend toward a state of decreasing order unless more energy is provided into the system to counteract this tendency.

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ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

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3 0
3 years ago
It has been argued that power plants should make use of off-peak hours to generate mechanical energy and store it until it is ne
sdas [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

90 rpm = 90 / 60 rps

= 1.5 rps

= 1.5 x 2π rad /s

angular velocity of flywheel

ω = 3π rad /s

Let I be the moment of inertia of flywheel

kinetic energy = (1/2) I ω²

(1/2) I ω² = 10⁷ J

I = 2 x  10⁷ / ω²

=2 x  10⁷ / (3π)²

= 2.2538 x 10⁵ kg m²

Let radius of wheel be R

I = 1/2 M R² , M is mass of flywheel

= 1/2 πR² x t x d x R² , t is thickness , d is density of wheel .

1/2 πR⁴ x t x d = 2.2538 x 10⁵

R⁴ = 2 x 2.2538 x 10⁵ / πt d

= 4.5076 x 10⁵ / 3.14 x .1 x 7800

= 184

R= 3.683 m .

diameter = 7.366 m .

b ) centripetal accn required

= ω² R

= 9π² x 3.683

= 326.816 m /s²

3 0
2 years ago
An electron in a television tube is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of 8.4\times 10^7~\text{m/s}8.4×10 ​7 ​​ m/s over
stich3 [128]

Answer:

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

Explanation:

From the kinematics of motion with constant acceleration we know that :  

vf^2=vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

Where :

• vf , vi, are the the final and the initial velocity of the electron  

• a is the acceleration of the electron  

• xf , xi are the final and the initial position of the electron .

Strategy for solving the problem : at first from the given information we calculate the acceleration of the electron.  

Givens: vf = 8.4 x 10^7 m/s , vi, = 0 m/s , xf = 0.025 m and xi = 0 m  

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2-vi^2=2*a(xf-xi)

2*a(xf-xi)= vf^2-vi^2

          a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

Pluging known information to get :

a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

  = 1.411 × 10^17

From the acceleration and the previous Eq. we can calculate the final velocity of the electron but a new position xf = 0.01 m  

so,

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2 =5.312× 10^7

From the following Eq. we can calculate the time elapsed in this motion .  

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

  t=√2(xf-xi)/a

 t=3.765×10^-10 s

now we can use the power P Eq.  

 P=W/Δt => ΔK/Δt  

Where: the work done W change the kinetic energy K of the electron ,

ΔK=Kf-Ki=>1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2

P=1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2/Δt

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

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3 years ago
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irina1246 [14]
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7 0
3 years ago
How is velocity and instantaneous speed alike
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3 years ago
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