Answer: Option (a) is correct.
Explanation:
Correct Option: The supply of loanable funds but not the supply of dollars in the market for foreign-currency exchange.
If the budget deficit increases, then U.S residents will want to purchase fewer foreign assets and foreign residents wants to buy more of U.S assets.
The budget deficit in the economy has to be financed either by borrowing or by increasing taxes. This budget deficit occurred because of the tax cuts and higher government spending.
If a country running a budget deficit, which lead to reduction in national saving. We all know that interest rate is determined in the loan market, where savers supply the loans to the private borrowers.
So, if there is a fall in the national saving, this will reduced the supply of loans from savers, which raises the interest rate in an economy.
This will attract the foreign flow of capital. This means that demand for domestic assets increases because of the higher interest rate.
Now, if foreign residents want to take an advantage of higher interest rate then they first have to acquire domestic currency.
Therefore, higher interest increases the demand for domestic currency in a market of foreign exchange.
Answer:
لقد تم خداعك للتو ، لقد تم خداعك للتو ، لقد تم خداعك للتو ، لقد تم خداعك للتو أيها الزنجي
Explanation:
The statement that would describe the shift from D1 to D2 is Demand for the product increased.
<h3>Why was there a shift from D1 to D2?</h3>
D2 is a curve that is to the right of D1 which means that it represents a higher level of demand for goods and services.
This means that for the demand to move from D1 to D2, there must have been an increase in the demand for the good or service and this could have been for any number of reasons including a reduction in the price of complimentary goods.
Find out more on determinants of demand at brainly.com/question/1245771
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Answer:
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Explanation:
let Z be the annual minimum cash flow
The internal rate of approach can be used here, in other words, the rate of return at which capital outlay of $2000 is equal present values of future cash flows
In year 1, present value of cash =X/discount factor
year 1 PV=Z/(1+i)^1
year 2 PV=Z/(1+i)^2
year 3=Z/(1+i)^3
Hence,
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Solving for Z above would give the minimum annual cash flow that must be generated for the computer to worth the purchase
Assuming i, interest rate on financing is 12%=0.12
Z can be computed thus:
$2000=Z(1/(1+0.12)^1+(1/(1+0.12)^2+(1+0.12)^3)
$2000=Z*3.09497902
Z=$2000/3.09497902
Z=$646.21
Answer:
Here all of these options are wrong , the correct answer is regardless of how the tax is levied the burden of tax would be shared by both the seller and buyer.
Explanation:
Tax can be said as primary source of income for the government. When a tax is levied on the goods , the burden of that would have to be bear by both buyer and seller , irrelevant of how that levied . If the taxes are high then the demand by buyer would be less and seller would receive low price because less people would buy and n the case where taxes are low demand would be high and seller would receive high prices ,in both cases tax would be levied on both seller and buyer and how much it would be depends upon the elasticity of demand and supply. So all the statements given here are false or invalid.
