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evablogger [386]
3 years ago
9

Why are there so few eclipses in 2014?

Physics
2 answers:
Sonbull [250]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Because the Moon casts a smaller shadow than Earth does, eclipses of the Sun tightly constrain where you can see them. If the Moon completely hides the Sun, even for a moment, the eclipse is considered total.

Explanation:

Ksju [112]3 years ago
8 0

There were 2 solar and 2 lunar eclipses in 2014.

That was pretty durn close to the averages for the whole 20th Century ... 2.22 solar per year, and 2.21 lunar per year.

So I don't think there's anything about 2014 that needs an explanation, because there were not "so few" of them in that year.

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A spherical tank with radius 4 m is half full of a liquid that has a density of 900 kg/m3. The tank has a 1 m spout at the top.
kompoz [17]

The answer & explanation for this question is given in the attachment below.

7 0
3 years ago
12000 inches to yards
Nutka1998 [239]

ANSWER

\begin{equation*} 333.33\text{ yds} \end{equation*}

EXPLANATION

We want to convert 12000 inches to yards.

To do this, divide the value in inches by 36:

\begin{gathered} 1\text{ in }=\frac{1}{36}\text{ yd} \\  \\ 12000\text{ in }=\frac{12000}{36}\text{ yds }=333.33\text{ yds} \end{gathered}

That is the answer.

4 0
11 months ago
The two conducting rails in the drawing are tilted upwards so they each make an angle of 30.0° with respect to the ground. The v
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

The current flows through the rod is 14.9 A.

Explanation:

Given that,

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F\cos\theta=mg\sin\theta

F=mg\tan\theta

Put the value into the formula

F=0.19\times9.8\times\tan30

F=1.075\ N

We need to calculate the current flows through the rod

Using formula of magnetic force

F=iLB

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i=\dfrac{1.075}{1.6\times0.045}

i=14.9\ A

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8 0
3 years ago
Monochromatic light of wavelength, lambda, is traveling in air. The light then strikes a thin film having an index of refraction
kumpel [21]

Answer:

The  correct option is  H

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The index of refraction of  coating is  n_1

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Here  t represents the thickness

For minimum thickness  m =  0

So

           2 *  t  =0  + \frac{1}{2}\frac{\lambda}{n_1 }

=>        t  =\frac{\lambda}{4n_1 }

3 0
2 years ago
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xenn [34]

Answer:

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Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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