Answer:

2)
3)
4)
Step-by-step explanation:
hope it helps
have a nice day :)
Because f(x)=x, goes through origin. So x and y -intercept are one point (0,0).
1872 + 1872
answers have to be more than 20 characters to post so um..
ELRIS COMEBACK 26/02
Answer:
1 is to 2 is the answer. U.got that