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SVEN [57.7K]
3 years ago
6

A silver tea spoon is placed in a cup filled with hot tea. After some time, the exposed end of the spoon becomes hot even withou

t a
direct contact with the liquid. This phenomenon can be explained by:
Physics
1 answer:
EastWind [94]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

As atoms in the spoon vibrates about their equilibrium positions and transfer energy form one end to other end. This process is called conduction.

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Block B has mass 6.00 kg and sits at rest on a horizontal, frictionless surface. Block A has mass 2.50 kg and sits at rest on to
zzz [600]

Answer:

Explanation:

Block A sits on block B and force is applied on block A . Block A will experience two forces 1) force P and 2 )  friction force in opposite direction of motion . Block B will experience one force that is force of friction in the direction of motion .

Let force on block A be P . friction force on it will be equal to kinetic friction, that is μ mg , where μ is coefficient of friction and m is mass of block A

friction force = .4 x 2.5 x 9.8

= 9.8 N

net force on block A = P - 9.8

acceleration = ( P - 9.8 ) / 2.5

force on block B = 9.8

acceleration = force / mass

= 9.8 / 6

for common acceleration

( P - 9.8 ) / 2.5  = 9.8 / 6

( P - 9.8 ) / 2.5 = 1.63333

P = 13.88 N .

4 0
3 years ago
Fluorine has 7 valence electrons. Which charge is its ion likely to have?(1 point)
7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

1–

Explanation:

The fluorine is the element with biggest electronegativity in the periodic table, so it usually always take an electron and gets charge 1–

5 0
2 years ago
If someone drove for 20 minutes going 30 m/s, how far did they drive?
vladimir2022 [97]
D- 36,000m is the answer
5 0
3 years ago
What is the instantaneous velocity v of the particle at t=10.0s?
algol [13]
The instantenous velocity is just the slope of the graph at a certain instant. Since the graph is a straight line, its instantenous velocity is uniform through out. v = dx / dt = (40 - 10) / (50 - 0) = 0.6 m/s.


I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A body, with a volume of 2 m3, weighs 40 kN. Determine its weight when
lana66690 [7]

Answer:

8.8 kN

Explanation:

V = 2 m³, W = 40 kN, SG = 1.59

Bouyant force N = 1.59 * 1000 kg/m³ * 9.81 N/kg * 2 m³ = 31.2 kN

So the weight becomes 40 - 31.2 = 8.8 kN

3 0
2 years ago
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