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Anna35 [415]
3 years ago
7

What's the equation of this sequence 4,8,16,32,64,128,256

Mathematics
2 answers:
VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The equation would be like :

2^(n+1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps ;)

Good luck ^^

lions [1.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we have a function a such that a: \mathbb{N}\to \mathbb{R} and a:n  \mapsto a(n) = a_n

The sequence is denoted as $\{a_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ such that \mathbb{N} = \{1, 2, 3, ...\}

For this sequence, we would have

\left\{ {2^n\right\}_{n = 2}^8

But sure it seems to follow

\left\{ {2^n\right\}_{n = 2}^\infty

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What is 1/4y-1=1/2x+7
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

  a linear equation in x and y

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation is a linear equation (all variables to the first power) relating the variables x and y. There are an infinite number of values of x and y that will satisfy this equation.

When graphed on an x-y plane, those solution values will fall on a straight line with a slope of 2. It will cross the y-axis at y=32, and the x-axis at x=-16.

8 0
3 years ago
A room contains three urns: u1, u2, u3. u1 contains 3 red and 2 yellow marbles. u2 contains 3 red and 7 yellow marbles. u3 conta
Archy [21]

Answer:

\dfrac{11}{30}

Step-by-step explanation:

Urn U1: 3 red and 2 yellow marbles, in total 5 marbles.

The probability to select red marble is \dfrac{3}{5}=0.6.

Urn U2: 3 red and 7 yellow marbles, in total 10 marbles.

The probability to select red marble is \dfrac{3}{10}=0.3.

Urn U1: 1 red and 4 yellow marbles, in total 5 marbles.

The probability to select red marble is \dfrac{1}{5}=0.2.

The probability to choose each urn is the same and is equal to \frac{1}{3}.

Thus, the probability that the marble is red is

\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot 0.6+\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot 0.3+\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot 0.2=\dfrac{1.1}{3}=\dfrac{11}{30}.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the measure of ∠DAE?
Nadusha1986 [10]
Triangle is the measure of
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
18931 divided by 83 =
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]
228.0843373493976
This is the answer
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone help me out please?? I would really appreciate it.
Aleks04 [339]
Tan(30deg) = n/rt(3)
1/rt(3) = n/rt(3)—> n=1
sin(30deg) = 1/m
1/2=1/m—> m=2
Thus m=2 ,n=1
4 0
3 years ago
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