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DedPeter [7]
3 years ago
13

Water flows through a first pipe of diameter 3 inches. If it is desired to use another pipe for the same flow rate such that the

velocity head in the second pipe is twice the velocity head in the first pipe, determine the diameter of the second pipe.
Physics
1 answer:
Alborosie3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the diameter of the second pipe is 2.52 in

Explanation:  

Given the data in the question;

We know that; the rate of flow is the same;

so

Av1 = Av2

v ∝ √h

\frac{A1}{A2} = \frac{V2}{V1}

\frac{A1}{A2}  = √(  \frac{h2}{h1} )

( π/4.D1² / π/4.D2² ) = √(  \frac{h2}{h1} )

( D1² / D2² ) =  √(  \frac{2h1}{h1} ) since second is double of first

so

( D1² / D2² ) =  √(  \frac{2}{1} )  

3² / D2² =  √2

D2²√2  = 9

D2² = 9/√2

D2² = 9 / 1.4142

D2² = 6.364

D2 = √ 6.364

D2 = 2.52 in

Therefore, the diameter of the second pipe is 2.52 in

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Explanation:

In the given situation two forces are working. These are:

1) Electric force (acting in the downward direction) = qE

2) weight (acting in the downward direction) = mg

Therefore, work done by all the forces = change in kinetic energy

Hence, qE \times S + mg \times S = 0.5 \times mv^{2}

     1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 1000 + 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times 9.8 \times (\frac{0.10}{100}) = 0.5 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times v^{2}

It is known that the weight of electron is far less compared to electric force. Therefore, we can neglect the weight  and the above equation will be as follows.

   (1.6 \times 10^{-19} \times 1000) \times (\frac{0.10}{100}) = 0.5 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \times v^{2
}

         v = sqrt{\frac{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}{(0.5 \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31})}

           = 592999 m/s

Since, the electron is travelling downwards it means that it looses the potential energy.

8 0
3 years ago
The last is 80 meter per second,please in am in exam​
inna [77]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
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A worker is thinking about two ways to get a box up 1.2 m onto a loading dock. He can use a force of 250 N to lift it straight u
harina [27]

Answer:

<em>The second option has a lower power output. P=30 W</em>

Explanation:

<u>Mechanical Power </u>

It is a physical magnitude that measures the rate a work W is done over time t.

\displaystyle P=\frac{W}{t}

Since W=F.d

\displaystyle P=\frac{F.d}{t}

The first option means the worker will lift the box by a distance of 1.2 meters in 3 seconds by applying 250 N of force. That produces a power of

\displaystyle P=\frac{(250). (1.2)}{3}=100\ Watt

The second option requires the worker applies 75 N of force and travel a distance of 4 meters for 10 seconds, thus the power is

\displaystyle P=\frac{(75). (4)}{10}=30\ Watt

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7 0
3 years ago
KE=0.5.m.v2 or PE=m.g.h
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

1. 37.8J

2. 18 Billion Joules, 18 Gigajoules

3. 9.81 Billion Joules, 9.81 Gigajoules

Explanation:

Use the formulas provided,

KE=(1/2)mv^2 and PE=mgh, noting that g=9.81

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The uncertainty in the position of an electron along an x axis is given as 5 x 10-12 m. What is the least uncertainty in any sim
Vsevolod [243]

Answer:

The least uncertainty in the momentum component px is 1 × 10⁻²³ kg.m.s⁻¹.

Explanation:

According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, the uncertainty in the position of an electron (σx) and the uncertainty in its linear momentum (σpx) are complementary variables and are related through the following expression.

σx . σpx ≥ h/4π

where,

h is the Planck´s constant

If σx = 5 × 10⁻¹²m,

5 × 10⁻¹²m . σpx ≥ 6.63 × 10⁻³⁴ kg.m².s⁻¹/4π

σpx ≥ 1 × 10⁻²³ kg.m.s⁻¹

4 0
3 years ago
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