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Ierofanga [76]
3 years ago
8

30. How do you make a conclusion?

Physics
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
6 0
B. You compare the data
You might be interested in
Saved
Anon25 [30]

Total distance moved by bead is 1.952 cm.

Explanation:

Let first consider all data that are given in question.

1.    F = 8 N                       ...force acting on string

2.   f  = 2 Hz                     ...frequency of system

3.   β = 4 cm = 0.04 m    ...wavelength of wave formed due to vibration           4.   A =  1 cm  = 0.01 m     ...Amplitude of vibration

Under certain conditions, waves can bounce back and forth through a particular region, effectively becoming stationary. These are called standing waves.

Here,it is due to vibration induced in spring due to tension induced in string

Standing wave equation is given by

y = (x,t) = 2A * sinK x * cos (wt)                ...(1)

Let first find, value of K, x, w, t

k = 2 * pi / beta                                          ....(2)

Where β is wavelength in meters

                   K is wave number

k = 2 * pi / 0.01

k = 628.31 m^{-1}

now, let us find value of w

W = 2 x pi x f                               ....(3)

                where f is frequency in hertz

W = 2 x pi x 2

W = 4 x pi

W = 0.08 \frac{m}{s}

y = (x,t) = 2A * sinK x * cos (wt)

now, let us find value of v that is wave speed

Notice that some x-positions of the resultant wave are always zero no matter what the phase relationship is.  These positions are called nodes.

Finding the positions where the sine function equals zero provides the positions of the nodes.

In our case, and      

K * x = pi

x = 0.04 / 2

x = 0.02

y = (0.02,1) = 2(0.01) * sin pi  * cos (12.5664 * 1)

y = (0.02,1) = 2(0.01) * -1  * cos 0.9761

Y = 1.952 cm

Finally, when bead is at middle of the string, total distance after stretch covered  is 1.952 cm.

3 0
3 years ago
A wave is 8 meters long and has a frequency of 3 Hz. Find speed
Olenka [21]

Answer:

The speed is 24 \frac{meter}{s}

Explanation:

A wave is a disturbance that propagates through a certain medium or in a vacuum, with transport of energy but without transport of matter.

The wavelength is the minimum distance between two successive points of the wave that are in the same state of vibration. It is expressed in units of length (m).

Frequency is the number of vibrations that occur in a unit of time. Its unit is s⁻¹ or hertz (Hz).

The speed of propagation is the speed with which the wave propagates in the middle, that is, the magnitude that measures the speed at which the wave disturbance propagates along its displacement. Relate wavelength (λ) and frequency (f) inversely proportionally using the following equation:

v = f * λ.

In this case, λ= 8 meter and f= 3 Hz

Then:

v= 3 Hz* 8 meter

So:

v= 24 \frac{meter}{s}

<u><em>The speed is 24 </em></u>\frac{meter}{s}<u><em></em></u>

5 0
3 years ago
How is energy transferred through a generator that produces electric current? A.from armature to commutator to brushes to turbin
vaieri [72.5K]
Armature to commutator to brushes to turbine
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Imagine that two balls, a basketball and a much larger exercise ball, are dropped from a parking garage. If both the mass and ra
pashok25 [27]

Here if we assume that there is no air friction on both balls then we can say

F = mg

now the acceleration is given as

F = ma = mg

a = g

so here both the balls will have same acceleration irrespective of size and mass

so we can say that to find out the time of fall of ball we can use

y = \frac{1}{2}gt^2

t = \sqrt{\frac{2y}{g}}

now from above equation we can say that time taken to hit the ground will be same for both balls and it is irrespective of its mass and size

3 0
4 years ago
Physics B 2020 Unit 3 Test
weqwewe [10]

Answer:

1)

When a charge is in motion in a magnetic field, the charge experiences a force of magnitude

F=qvB sin \theta

where here:

For the proton in this problem:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the proton

v = 300 m/s is the speed of the proton

B = 19 T is the magnetic field

\theta=65^{\circ} is the angle between the directions of v and B

So the force is

F=(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(300)(19)(sin 65^{\circ})=8.28\cdot 10^{-16} N

2)

The magnetic field produced by a bar magnet has field lines going from the North pole towards the South Pole.

The density of the field lines at any point tells how strong is the magnetic field at that point.

If we observe the field lines around a magnet, we observe that:

- The density of field lines is higher near the Poles

- The density of field lines is lower far from the Poles

Therefore, this means that the magnetic field of a magnet is stronger near the North and South Pole.

3)

The right hand rule gives the direction of the  force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field.

It can be applied as follows:

- Direction of index finger = direction of motion of the charge

- Direction of middle finger = direction of magnetic field

- Direction of thumb = direction of the force (for a negative charge, the direction must be reversed)

In this problem:

- Direction of motion = to the right (index finger)

- Direction of field = downward (middle finger)

- Direction of force = into the screen (thumb)

4)

The radius of a particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

r=\frac{mv}{qB}

where here we have:

m=6.64\cdot 10^{-22} kg is the mass of the alpha particle

v=2155 m/s is the speed of the alpha particle

q=2\cdot 1.602\cdot 10^{-19}=3.204\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the alpha particle

B = 12.2 T is the strength of the magnetic field

Substituting, we find:

r=\frac{(6.64\cdot 10^{-22})(2155)}{(3.204\cdot 10^{-19})(12.2)}=0.366 m

5)

The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in circular motion in a magnetic field is:

f=\frac{qB}{2\pi m}

where here:

q=1.602\cdot 10^{-19}C is the charge of the electron

B = 0.0045 T is the strength of the magnetic field

m=9.31\cdot 10^{-31} kg is the mass of the electron

Substituting, we find:

f=\frac{(1.602\cdot 10^{-19})(0.0045)}{2\pi (9.31\cdot 10^{-31})}=1.23\cdot 10^8 Hz

6)

When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its path has a helical shape, because it is the composition of two motions:

1- A uniform motion in a certain direction

2- A circular motion in the direction perpendicular to the magnetic field

The second motion is due to the presence of the magnetic force. However, we know that the direction of the magnetic force depends on the sign of the charge: when the sign of the charge is changed, the direction of the force is reversed.

Therefore in this case, when the particle gains the opposite charge, the circular motion 2) changes sign, so the path will remains helical, but it reverses direction.

7)

The electromotive force induced in a conducting loop due to electromagnetic induction is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz:

\epsilon=-\frac{N\Delta \Phi}{\Delta t}

where

N is the number of turns in the loop

\Delta \Phi is the change in magnetic flux through the loop

\Delta t is the time elapsed

From the formula, we see that the emf is induced in the loop (and so, a current is also induced) only if \Delta \Phi \neq 0, which means only if there is a change in magnetic flux through the loop: this occurs if the magnetic field is changing, or if the area of the loop is changing, or if the angle between the loop and the field is changing.

8)

The flux is calculated as

\Phi = BA sin \theta

where

B = 5.5 T is the strength of the magnetic field

A is the area of the coil

\theta=18^{\circ} is the angle between the  direction of the field and the plane of the loop

Here the loop is rectangular with lenght 15 cm and width 8 cm, so the area is

A=(0.15 m)(0.08 m)=0.012 m^2

So the flux is

\Phi = (5.5)(0.012)(sin 18^{\circ})=0.021 Wb

See the last 7 answers in the attached document.

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5 0
3 years ago
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