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katrin [286]
3 years ago
12

Why do cars have a push start button???​

Engineering
1 answer:
QveST [7]3 years ago
8 0
To be more easy for them
You might be interested in
What is the metal removal rate when a 2 in-diameter hole 3.5 in deep is drilled in 1020 steel at cutting speed of 120 fpm with a
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

a) the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

b) the cutting time is 0.98 min

Explanation:

Given the data from the question

first we find the rpm for the spindle of the drilling tool, using the equation

Ns = 12V/πD

V is the cutting speed(120 fpm) and D is the diameter of the hole( 2 in)

so we substitute

Ns = 12 × 120 / π2

Ns = 1440 / 6.2831

Ns = 229.18 rmp

Now we find the metal removal rate using the equation

MRR = (πD²/4) Fr × Ns

Fr is the feed rate( 0.02 ipr ),

so we substitute

MRR = ((π × 2²)/4) × 0.02 × 229.18

MRR = 14.3998 ≈ 14.4 in³/min

Therefore the metal removal rate is 14.4 in³/min

Next we find the allowance for approach of the tip of the drill

A = D/2

A = 2/2

= 1 in

now find the time required to drill the hole

Tm = (L + A) / (Fr × Ns)

Lis the the depth of the hole( 3.5 in)

so we substitute our values

Tm = (3.5 + 1) / (0.02 × 229.18  )

Tm = 4.5 / 4.5836

Tm = 0.98 min

Therefore the cutting time is 0.98 min

8 0
3 years ago
Consider a cubic workpiece of rigid perfect plastic material with side length lo. The cube is deformed plastically to the shape
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:  ε₁+ε₂+ε₃ = 0

Explanation: Considering the initial and final volume to be constant which gives rise to the relation:-

                         l₀l₀l₀=l₁l₂l₃

                        \frac{lo*lo*lo}{l1*l2*l3}=1.0

                      taking natural log on both sides

                              ln(\frac{(lo*lo*lo)}{l1*l2*l3})=ln(1)

Considering the logarithmic Laws of division and multiplication :

                                ln(AB) = ln(A)+ln(B)

                                ln(A/B) = ln(A)-ln(B)

                           ln(\frac{(l1)}{lo})*ln(\frac{(l2)}{lo})*ln(\frac{(l3)}{lo}) = 0

Use the image attached to see the definition of true strain defined as

                         ln(l1/1o)= ε₁

which then proves that ε₁+ε₂+ε₃ = 0

8 0
3 years ago
Interpret the assembly program below: MOV R3,R0;
Reika [66]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.  With the operands R0, R1, the program would compute AND operation and ADD operation .

2. The operands could truly be signed 2's complement encoded (i.e Yes) .

3. The overflow truly occurs when two numbers that are unsigned were added and the result is larger than the capacity of the register, in that situation, overflow would occur and it could corrupt the data.

 When the result of an operation is smaller in magnitude than the smallest value represented by the data type, then arithmetic underflow will occur.

7 0
4 years ago
The specific volume of a system consisting of refrigerant-134a at 1.0 Mpa is 0.01 m /kg. The quality of the R-134a is: (a) 12.6%
Flura [38]

Answer:

option c is correct

47.2%

Explanation:

given data

consisting of refrigerant = 134 a

volume V = 0.01 m³/kg

pressure P = 1MPa = 1000 kPa

to find out

quality of the R 134a

solution

we will get here value of volume Vf and Vv from pressure table 60 kpa to 3 Mpa for 1 Mpa of R134 a

that is

Vf = 0.0008701 m³/kg

Vv = 0.0203 m³/kg

so we will apply here formula that is

quality = (V - Vf) / (Vv - Vf)    ............1

put here value

quality = (0.01 - 0.0008701 ) / ( 0.0203 - 0.0008701 )

quality = 0.4698

so quality is 47 %

SO OPTION C IS CORRECT

4 0
4 years ago
For a bronze alloy, the stress at which plastic deformation begins is 275 MPa, and the modulus of elasticity is 115 GPa. (a) Wha
Anton [14]

Answer:

89375 N

Explanation:

Rearrange the formula for normal stress for F:

\sigma=\frac{F}{A}

F=\sigma*A

Convert given values to base units:

275 MPa = 275*10^{6} Pa

325 mm^{2} = 0.000325 m^{2}

Substituting in given values:

F = (275*10^{6})*(0.000325)=89375 N

3 0
3 years ago
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