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BigorU [14]
3 years ago
7

as light passes from water into air it has a refracted angle of 35 degrees. calculate the incident angle of the light.

Physics
1 answer:
Alona [7]3 years ago
5 0
I think it’s 44 but I’m not sure
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How to convert 8 feet to metres​
ohaa [14]

Answer:

2.4384m

Explanation:

1 ft in m is 0.3048

8ft in m is x

therefore 8ft in m is

8 * 0.3048 = 2.4384

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A tortoise can run with a speed of 0.14 m/s, and a hare can run 20 times as fast. In a race, they both start at the same time, b
Reptile [31]

speed of tortoise is given as v1 = 0.14 m/s

speed of hare is given as v2 = 20*0.14 = 2.8 m/s

now let say the total length of the path is "d"

so the total time taken by the tortoise to cover this

t = \frac{d}{0.14}

now given that hare took rest for 1 min

so total time of run for hare is (t - 60)s

so the distance that hare covered is given by

d - 0.30 = 2.8 * (t - 60)

now by above two equations

d - 0.30 = 2.8 * \frac{d}{0.14} - 168

168 - 0.30 = (20 - 1)d

d = 8.82 m

and the time t is given by

t = \frac{8.82}{0.14}

t = 63 s

so part a)

t = 63 s

part b)

d = 8.82 m

4 0
4 years ago
In a belly-flop diving contest, the winner is the diver who makes the biggest splash upon hitting the water. the size
ad-work [718]

The second diver have to leap to make a competitive splash by 4.08 m high.

<h3>What is potential energy?</h3>

The energy by virtue of its position is called the potential energy.

PE = mgh

where, g = 9.81 m/s²

Given is the diver jumps from a 3.00-m platform. one diver has a mass of 136 kg and simply steps off the platform. another diver has a mass of 100 kg and leaps upward from the platform.

The potential energy of the first diver must be equal to the second diver.

P.E₁ = P.E₂

m₁gh₁ = m₂gh₂

Substitute the vales, we have

136 x 3  = 100 x h₂

h₂ = ₂4.08 m

Thus, the second diver need to leap by 4.08 m high.

Learn more about potential energy.

brainly.com/question/24284560

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
What would the charge be on an ion with 8 protons 7 neutrons and 6 elements?
andre [41]

Answer:

-2

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
The per-unit impedance of a single-phase electric load is 0.3. The base power is 500 kVA, and the base voltage is 13.8 kV. a. Fi
Leto [7]

Answer:

114.26

Explanation:

a)Formula for per unit impedance for change of base is

Zpu2= Zpu1×(kV1/kV2)²×(kVA2/kVA1)

Zpu2: New per unit impedance

Zpu1: given per unit impedance

kV1: give base voltage

kV2: New bas votlage

kVA1: given bas power

kVA2: new base power

In the question

Zpu2=??

Zpu1= 0.3

kV2=24kV

kV1= 13.8 kV

kVA2= 1MVA ×1000= 1000 kVA

kVA1=500kVA

Zpu2= 0.3(13.8/24)²×(1000/500)

Zpu2= 0.198

b) to find ohmic impedance we will first calculate base value of impedance(Zbase). So,

Zbase= kV²/MVA

  Zbase= 13.8²/(500/1000)

  Zbase=380.88

Now that we have base value of impedance, Zbase, we can calculate actual ohmic value of impedance(Zactual) by using the following formula:

Zpu=Zactual/Zbase

0.3= Zactual/380.88

Zactual= 114.26 ohms

8 0
4 years ago
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