You know that when the displacement is equal to the amplitude (A), the velocity is zero, which implies that the kinetic energy (KE) is zeero, so the total mechanical energy (ME) is the potential energy (PE).
And you know that the potential energy, PE, is [ 1/2 ] k (x^2)
Then, use x = A, to calculate the PE in the point where ME = PE.
ME = PE = [1/2] k (A)^2.
At half of the amplitude, x = A/2 => PE = [ 1/2] k (A/2)^2
=> PE = [1/4] { [1/2]k(A)^2 } = .[1/4] ME
So, if PE is 1/4 of ME, KE is 3/4 of ME.
And the answer is 3/4
That would be <span>the national chairperson
-I hope this helped.</span>
Answer:
Explanation:
A
35 N Small Dog <=======BONE=========> Bigger Dog 42 N
B
Fnet = Large Dog - small dog The forces are subtracted because they are acting in opposite Directions.
Fnet = 42 - 35
Fnet = 7 N
C
m = 2.5 kg
F = 7 N
a = ?
F = m * a
7 = 2.5 a
a = 7 / 2.5
a = 2.8 m/s^2
Answer:
0.3cm
Explanation:
Y = 0.3 sin(0.5x - 50t) compare with,
y = A sin(kx - wt)
A = 0.3m
The answer is no. If you are dealing with a conservative force and the object begins and ends at the same potential then the work is zero, regardless of the distance travelled. This can be shown using the work-energy theorem which states that the work done by a force is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object.
W=KEf−KEi
An example of this would be a mass moving on a frictionless curved track under the force of gravity.
The work done by the force of gravity in moving the objects in both case A and B is the same (=0, since the object begins and ends with zero velocity) but the object travels a much greater distance in case B, even though the force is constant in both cases.