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gtnhenbr [62]
3 years ago
15

Answering the following questions will help you to focus on the outcomes of these experiments:

Physics
2 answers:
kotykmax [81]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Because friction is always present, the actual mechanical advantage of a machine is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage.

qwelly [4]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Answering the following questions will help you to focus on the outcomes of these experiments:

1.How does the length to height ratio (the IMA) of trial 1 compare to trial 2?

= Trial 1 is 5.09, and Trial 2 is 3.25. Trial 1 is higher because the height of the trial is less than trial 2.

2.Why is the actual mechanical advantage less than the ideal mechanical advantage in each of the trials?

= It is because the machine's ideal mechanical advantage reflects the increase or decrease in force that would have occurred without friction. It is always greater than the actual mechanical advantage because all machines have to overcome friction.

3.If a machine was 100% efficient, how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

= In any real machine, some of the efforts are used to overcome friction. Thus, the resistance force ratio to the effort (AMA) is less than the (IMA).

A frictionless machine would have an efficiency of 100%.

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Two beams of coherent light travel different paths, arriving at point P. If the maximum destructive interference is to occur at
Nimfa-mama [501]

Answer:

The path difference between the two waves should be one-half of a wavelength

Explanation:

When two beams of coherent light travel different paths, arriving at point P. If the maximum destructive interference is to occur at point P , then the condition for it is that the path difference of two beams must be odd multiple of half wavelength. Symbolically

path difference = ( 2n+1 ) λ / 2

So path difference may be λ/2 , 3λ/ 2,  5λ/ 2 etc .

Hence right option is

The path difference between the two waves should be one-half of a wavelength.

5 0
3 years ago
To aid in the prevention of tooth decay, it is recommended that drinking water contain 0.800 ppm fluoride, F−. How many grams of
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

2.23 × 10^6 g of F- must be added to the cylindrical reservoir in order to obtain a drinking water with a concentration of 0.8ppm of F-

Explanation:

Here are the steps of how to arrive at the answer:

The volume of a cylinder = ((pi)D²/4) × H

Where D = diameter of the cylindrical reservoir = 2.02 × 10^2m

H = Height of the reservoir = 87.32m

Therefore volume of cylindrical reservoir = (3.142×202²/4)m² × 87.32m = 2798740.647m³

1ppm = 1g/m³

0.8ppm = 0.8 × 1g/m³

= 0.8g/m³

Therefore to obtain drinking water of concentration 0.8g/m³ in a reservoir of volume 2798740.647m³, F- of mass = 0.8g/m³ × 2798740.647m³ = 2.23 × 10^6 g must be added to the tank.

Thank you for reading.

4 0
3 years ago
A bar magnet is cut in half, as shown.
Feliz [49]

Answer:

NS/NS

Explanation:

If we cut a bar magnet in half pieces according to the image that is given below the question, then the magnet will show NS/NS that is (North-South/North-South) because the smaller pieces of the magnet will become a small magnet with the same property-carrying both the poles, north pole as well as south pole. The poles will not be separated.

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE ANSWER FAST!! A scientist put red blood cells in water that contained salt. Over time, the red blood cells burst. What is
Nitella [24]
It is most likely true that there was a lower concentration of salt in the water than in the cells because when blood cells are put in a hypotonic solution such as pure water, the little to no salt concentration in the water causes the cells to swell and burst. This would occur because the water would try to dilute the solution inside of the blood cell and which would, therefore, cause it to burst. Hope this helps! 
7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A golfer hits a golf ball with a velocity of 36.0 meters/second at an angle of 28.0°. If the hang time of the golf ball is 3.44
Ray Of Light [21]
Solving this using the time, we know that range = horizontal velocity x time of flight 

<span>since there are no horizontal forces acting on the ball, there are no horizontal accelerations and the initial horizontal velocity of 36 cos 28 will be constant throughout. I</span><span>f we use the correct time of flight given the launch parameters, we have </span>

<span>range = 36 cos 28 x 3.44 s = 109.3 m </span>
5 0
3 years ago
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