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Maksim231197 [3]
3 years ago
9

A bar magnet is cut in half, as shown.

Physics
2 answers:
Stells [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

It's A

Right on EDG 2020!!!

Feliz [49]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

NS/NS

Explanation:

If we cut a bar magnet in half pieces according to the image that is given below the question, then the magnet will show NS/NS that is (North-South/North-South) because the smaller pieces of the magnet will become a small magnet with the same property-carrying both the poles, north pole as well as south pole. The poles will not be separated.

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Is a force that opposes the motion between two objects in contact with each other.
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer: Friction  :)        

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
reasons. 5. Why is the unit of temperature called a fundamental unit? Give reasons. ring derived unit.​
Furkat [3]

Explanation:

It doesn't depends upon other.

It have it's own identity.

It's a lot easier to measure temperature than to measure the motion of component particles.

8 0
3 years ago
A man is standing on a weighing machine on a ship which is bobbing up and down with simple harmonic motion of period T=15.0s.Ass
STALIN [3.7K]

Well, first of all, one who is sufficiently educated to deal with solving
this exercise is also sufficiently well informed to know that a weighing
machine, or "scale", should not be calibrated in units of "kg" ... a unit
of mass, not force.  We know that the man's mass doesn't change,
and the spectre of a readout in kg that is oscillating is totally bogus.

If the mass of the man standing on the weighing machine is 60kg, then
on level, dry land on Earth, or on the deck of a ship in calm seas on Earth,
the weighing machine will display his weight as  588 newtons  or as 
132.3 pounds.  That's also the reading as the deck of the ship executes
simple harmonic motion, at the points where the vertical acceleration is zero.

If the deck of the ship is bobbing vertically in simple harmonic motion with
amplitude of M and period of 15 sec, then its vertical position is 

                                     y(t) = y₀ + M sin(2π t/15) .

The vertical speed of the deck is     y'(t) = M (2π/15) cos(2π t/15)

and its vertical acceleration is          y''(t) = - (2πM/15) (2π/15) sin(2π t/15)

                                                                = - (4 π² M / 15²)  sin(2π t/15)

                                                                = - 0.1755 M sin(2π t/15) .

There's the important number ... the  0.1755 M.
That's the peak acceleration.
From here, the problem is a piece-o-cake.

The net vertical force on the intrepid sailor ... the guy standing on the
bathroom scale out on the deck of the ship that's "bobbing" on the
high seas ... is (the force of gravity) + (the force causing him to 'bob'
harmonically with peak acceleration of  0.1755 x amplitude).

At the instant of peak acceleration, the weighing machine thinks that
the load upon it is a mass of  65kg, when in reality it's only  60kg.
The weight of 60kg = 588 newtons.
The weight of 65kg = 637 newtons.
The scale has to push on him with an extra (637 - 588) = 49 newtons
in order to accelerate him faster than gravity.

Now I'm going to wave my hands in the air a bit:

Apparent weight = (apparent mass) x (real acceleration of gravity)

(Apparent mass) = (65/60) = 1.08333 x real mass.

Apparent 'gravity' = 1.08333 x real acceleration of gravity.

The increase ... the 0.08333 ... is the 'extra' acceleration that's due to
the bobbing of the deck.

                        0.08333 G  =  0.1755 M

The 'M' is what we need to find.

Divide each side by  0.1755 :          M = (0.08333 / 0.1755) G

'G' = 9.0 m/s²
                                       M = (0.08333 / 0.1755) (9.8) =  4.65 meters .

That result fills me with an overwhelming sense of no-confidence.
But I'm in my office, supposedly working, so I must leave it to others
to analyze my work and point out its many flaws.
In any case, my conscience is clear ... I do feel that I've put in a good
5-points-worth of work on this problem, even if the answer is wrong .

8 0
3 years ago
Sam is observing the velocity of a car at different times. After three hours, the velocity of the car is 53 km/h. After six hour
Serhud [2]
For the answer to the question above, first find out the gradient. 

<span>m = rise/run </span>
<span>=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1) </span>

<span>the x's and y's are the points given: "After three hours, the velocity of the car is 53 km/h. After six hours, the velocity of the car is 62 km/h" </span>
<span>(x1,y1) = (3,53) </span>
<span>(x2,y2) = (6,62) </span>

<span>sub values back into the equation </span>
<span>m = (62-53)/(6-3) </span>
<span>m = 9/3 </span>
<span>m = 3 </span>

<span>now we use a point-slope form to find the the standard form </span>
<span>y-y1 = m(x-x1) </span>
<span>where x1 and y1 are any set of point given </span>
<span>y-53 = 3(x-3) </span>
<span>y-53 = 3x - 9 </span>
<span>y = 3x - 9 + 53 </span>
<span>y = 3x + 44 </span>

<span>y is the velocity of the car, x is the time.
</span>I hope this helps.
4 0
3 years ago
A ball hits a wall horizontally at 6m/s and rebounces at 4.4m/s the ball is in contact with wall for 0.04 sec. what is the accel
Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

Acceleration (a) = 40 m/s²

Explanation:

Given:

Initial velocity (u) = 6 m/s

Final velocity (v) = 4.4 m/s

Time taken (t) = 0.04sec

Find:

Acceleration (a) = ?

Computation:

We know that,

⇒ v = u + at

⇒ a = (v - u) / t

⇒ Acceleration (a) = (4.4 - 6) / 0.04

⇒ Acceleration (a) = (-1.6) / 0.04

Acceleration (a) = 40 m/s²

8 0
3 years ago
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