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blsea [12.9K]
3 years ago
5

In a thin film experiment, a wedge of air is used between two glass plates. If the wavelength of the incident light in air is 48

0 nm, how much thicker is the air wedge at the 16th dark fringe than it is at the 6th dark fringe
Physics
1 answer:
cluponka [151]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The thickness is  \Delta y =  2.4 *10^{-6} \  m

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The wavelength is  \lambda  = 480 \ nm = 480*10^{-9} \  m

    The first order of the dark  fringe is  m_1 =  16

     The second order of dark fringe considered is  m_2 = 6

Generally the condition for destructive interference is mathematically represented as

        y = \frac{m \lambda}{2}

Here y is the path difference between the central maxima(i.e the origin) and any dark fringe

So  the path difference between the 16th dark fringe and the 6th dark fringe is mathematically represented as

      y_1 - y_2 = \Delta y =  \frac{m_1 \lambda}{2} -  \frac{m_2 \lambda}{2}

=>  y_1 - y_2 = \Delta y =  \frac{16 *480*10^{-9}}{2} -  \frac{6 *480*10^{-9}}{2}

=>  y_1 - y_2 = \Delta y =  5 (480*10^{-9})

=>  \Delta y =  2.4 *10^{-6} \  m

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3 years ago
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jasenka [17]

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7 0
3 years ago
A woman is riding a jet ski at a speed of 26 m/s and notices a seawall straight ahead. the farthest she can lean the craft in or
castortr0y [4]

she can stop about 16 feet before hitting it

7 0
3 years ago
What is the Force in Newtons exerted by cart with a mass of 0.75 kg and an Acceleration of 6m/s2?
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

<h2>4.5 N</h2>

Explanation:

The force acting on an object given it's mass and acceleration can be found by using the formula

force = mass × acceleration

From the question we have

force = 0.75 × 6 = 4.5

We have the final answer as

<h3>4.5 N</h3>

Hope this helps you

6 0
2 years ago
A physical pendulum in the form of a planar object moves in simple harmonic motion with a frequency of 0.680 Hz. The pendulum ha
sineoko [7]

Answer:

Therefore, the moment of inertia is:

I=0.37 \: kgm^{2}

Explanation:

The period of an oscillation equation of a solid pendulum is given by:

T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{Mgd}} (1)

Where:

  • I is the moment of inertia
  • M is the mass of the pendulum
  • d is the distance from the center of mass to the pivot
  • g is the gravity

Let's solve the equation (1) for I

T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{Mgd}}

I=Mgd(\frac{T}{2\pi})^{2}

Before find I, we need to remember that

T = \frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{0.680}=1.47\: s

Now, the moment of inertia will be:

I=2*9.81*0.340(\frac{1.47}{2\pi})^{2}  

Therefore, the moment of inertia is:

I=0.37 \: kgm^{2}

I hope it helps you!

7 0
3 years ago
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