Why does the quotient of 8 ÷ 1 not change when we add a place value in the dividend and the divisor to make 80 ÷ 10?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alex Ar [27]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Basically this is because division can be thought of as how many times does the divisor have to be multiplied in order to produce the dividend.

So you would need to multiply 1 8 times in order to produce the dividend,

Similarly, 10 goes into 80 8 times. The zeros are simply cancelled out in the division.

You might be interested in

Solve 34*17 using an area model

Monica [59]

Well put 34 units on the left vertically and 17 units on the bottom hoizontially... fill it up and count how many you have

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which is the standard form of the equation of the parabola that has a vertex of (3, 1) and a directric of x = -2?

vagabundo [1.1K]

Check the picture below. So,the parabola looks like so, notice the distance "p". since the parabola is opening to the right, then "p" is positive, thus is 5.

$\bf \textit{parabola vertex form with focus point distance}\\\\
\begin{array}{llll}
\boxed{(y-{{ k}})^2=4{{ p}}(x-{{ h}})} \\\\
(x-{{ h}})^2=4{{ p}}(y-{{ k}}) \\
\end{array}
\qquad 
\begin{array}{llll}
vertex\ ({{ h}},{{ k}})\\\\
{{ p}}=\textit{distance from vertex to }\\
\qquad \textit{ focus or directrix}
\end{array}\\\\$

$\bf -------------------------------\\\\
\begin{cases}
h=3\\
k=1\\
p=5
\end{cases}\implies (y-1)^2=4(5)(x-3)\implies (y-1)^2=20(x-3)
\\\\\\
\cfrac{1}{20}(y-1)^2=x-3\implies \boxed{\cfrac{1}{20}(y-1)^2+3=x}$