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nikdorinn [45]
3 years ago
6

Which of the following is the most important difference between a permanent magnet and a electromagnet

Physics
1 answer:
Ira Lisetskai [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation: the major difference between an electromagnet and permanent magnet is that the former can have a magnetic field when electric current flows through it and disappears when the flow of the current stops. ... It will always displays the magnetic behaviour.

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a student calculates experimentally the value of density of an iron as 4.4 gcm³. if the actual density of an iron is 7.6 gcm³, c
ser-zykov [4K]
Hola!

Percentage Error is a measurement of the discrepancy between an observed and a true, or accepted value.

[ refer the attachment. ]

According to Question,

% error = \frac{7.4 - 7.6}{7.6} × 100

= 2.631 % = 2.7 % (approximately.)

hope it helps!

5 0
3 years ago
According to the "Law of Increasing Opportunity Costs," what would be the opportunity cost of a student who is staying up all ni
kodGreya [7K]

C. The opportunity cost of a student who is staying up all night to study for an exam that he has to take in the early morning is sleep or rest.

<h3>What is law of opportunity cost?</h3>

The law of increasing opportunity cost is an economic principle that describes how opportunity costs increase as resources are applied.

As the student gives up his sleep or night rest in the place of his exam preparation, we say that the opportunity cost is the sleep or rest.

Thus, the opportunity cost of a student who is staying up all night to study for an exam that he has to take in the early morning is sleep or rest.

Learn more about opportunity cost here: brainly.com/question/8846809

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
An object is thrown upward from the edge of a tall building with a velocity of 10 m/s. Where will the object be 3 s after it is
Alik [6]
We use a fundamental kinematic equation as follows:

V = Vo + g*t. 
<span>Tr = (V-Vo)/g = (0-10)/-10 = 1 s. = </span><span>time to reach max. height </span>

<span>Tf = Tr = 1 s. = Fall time or time to fall back to edge of bldg. </span>

<span>3-Tr-Tf = 3-1-1 = 1 s. Below edge of bldg. </span>

<span>d = Vo*t + 0.5g*t^2. </span>
<span>d = 10*1 + 5*1^2 = 15 m. <---- OPTION C</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Which ONE of the following pairs of physical quantities consists of one scalar and one vector quantity?
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

speed and acceleration

Explanation:

speed is a scalar quantity

acceleration is a vector quantity

7 0
2 years ago
How to solve it? Three capacitors with capacities of 600 pF, 300 pF, 200 pF are connected in series. The 60 V voltage is applied
adell [148]

Answer:

1. Voltage across 600 pF is 10 V.

2. Voltage across 300 pF is 20 V.

3. Voltage across 200 pF is 30 V.

Explanation:

We'll begin by calculating the total capacitance of capacitor. This can be obtained as follow:

Capicitance 1 (C₁) = 600 pF

Capicitance 2 (C₂) = 300 pF

Capicitance 3 (C₃) = 200 pF

Total capacitance (Cₜ) =?

1/Cₜ = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂ + 1/C₃

1/Cₜ = 1/600 + 1/300 + 1/200

1/Cₜ = 1 + 2 + 3 / 600

1/Cₜ = 6/600

1/Cₜ = 1/100

Cₜ = 100 pF

Next, we shall convert 100 pF to Farad (F). This can be obtained as follow:

1 pF = 1×10¯¹² F

Therefore,

100 pF = 100 pF × 1×10¯¹² F / 1 pF

100 pF = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Thus, 100 pF is equivalent to 1×10¯¹⁰ F.

Next, we shall determine the charge. This can be obtained as follow:

Voltage (V) = 60 V

Capicitance (C) = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) =?

Q = CV

Q = 60 × 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Q = 6×10¯⁹ C

1. Determination of the voltage across 600 pF.

Capicitance 1 (C₁) = 600 pF = 6×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 1 (V₁) =?

Q = C₁V₁

6×10¯⁹ = 6×10¯¹⁰ × V₁

Divide both side by 6×10¯¹⁰

V₁ = 6×10¯⁹ / 6×10¯¹⁰

V₁ = 10 V

2. Determination of the voltage across 300 pF.

Capicitance 2 (C₂) = 300 pF = 3×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 2 (V₂) =?

Q = C₂V₂

6×10¯⁹ = 3×10¯¹⁰ × V₂

Divide both side by 3×10¯¹⁰

V₂ = 6×10¯⁹ / 3×10¯¹⁰

V₂ = 20 V

3. Determination of the voltage across 200 pF.

Capicitance 3 (C₃) = 200 pF = 2×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 3 (V₃) =?

Q = C₃V₃

6×10¯⁹ = 2×10¯¹⁰ × V₃

Divide both side by 2×10¯¹⁰

V₃ = 6×10¯⁹ / 2×10¯¹⁰

V₃ = 30 V

7 0
2 years ago
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