Answer:349
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer
125,75
Step - by - step explanation
<em>3</em><em>/</em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>×</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>7</em><em>5</em>
<em>=</em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em>×</em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em>/</em><em>3</em><em>=</em><em>2</em><em>7</em><em>5</em>
<em>there</em><em>fore</em><em> </em><em>8</em><em>=</em><em>8</em><em>/</em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em>×</em><em>2</em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em>=</em><em>2</em><em>0</em><em>0</em>
<em>3</em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>3</em><em>/</em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em>×</em><em>2</em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em> </em>
<em>2</em><em>0</em><em>0</em><em>-</em><em>7</em><em>5</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>2</em><em>5</em>
Answer:
6 Days
Step-by-step explanation:
Practically:
It takes,
10 Men ( complete ) 5 Copies --> 6 Days
So, 2 Men can complete 1 copy in 6 days.
Question asks us :
8 Men ( complete ) 4 Copies --> X Days
It will take 6 days because the proportion of men to copies is same as the first equation.
Theoretically:
10 Men 5 Copies 6 Days
8 Men 4 Copies X Days
> 6/X = 8/10 ( If men decrease the number of days increase. So, it is an indirect proportion. ) . 5/4 ( If copies decrease the number of days decrease as well. So, it is a direct proportion. )
> 6/X = 8/10 . 5/4
> 6/X = 40/40
> 6/X = 1
<h2>
> X=6</h2><h2>
</h2><h2><em>
I hope it will be understood.</em></h2><h2><em>
If I have any inaccuracies please let me know.</em></h2><h2><em>
Have a nice day and never stop questioning!</em></h2><h3><em>
</em></h3>
Answer:
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
Start on the left side.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
Write
sin
2
(
x
)
as a fraction with denominator
1
.
1
+
1
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
sin
2
(
x
)
1
Combine.
1
+
1
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
sin
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
⋅
1
Multiply
cos
(
x
)
2
by
1
.
1
+
sin
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Apply Pythagorean identity in reverse.
1
+
1
−
cos
2
(
x
)
cos
2
(
x
)
Simplify.
Tap for more steps...
1
cos
2
(
x
)
Now consider the right side of the equation.
sec
2
(
x
)
Convert to sines and cosines.
Tap for more steps...
1
2
cos
2
(
x
)
One to any power is one.
1
cos
2
(
x
)
Because the two sides have been shown to be equivalent, the equation is an identity.
1
+
sec
2
(
x
)
sin
2
(
x
)
=
sec
2
(
x
)
is an identity
Step-by-step explanation:
