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anzhelika [568]
3 years ago
8

How do humans depend on geochemical cycles?

Physics
1 answer:
Elena-2011 [213]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Because we need clean water to obtain a healthy diet, need oxygen which plants provide through photosynthesis and soil is important for food.

You might be interested in
Why is the same side of the Moon always visible from Earth?
son4ous [18]

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer

The true fact is that C is what happens in outer space.  Both rotations take 27.3 days.  

A: The exact opposite is true. It does rotate about it's axis.

B: Again this is just plain false. Given the way we observe it, the moon must be rotating around the earth.

D. they don't. 27.3 hours and 24 hours are not the same.

8 0
2 years ago
1. How can you explain the sound has energy?<br><br><br>​
LenKa [72]

Answer:

Sound energy is produced when an object vibrates. The sound vibrations cause waves of pressure that travel through a medium, such as air, water, wood or metal. Sound energy is a form of mechanical energy.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
When a pair of balanced forces acts on an object, the net force that results is.
polet [3.4K]
D.  Equal to zero.

Because the forces balance each other.
7 0
3 years ago
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
3 years ago
A bungee jumper with mass 65.0 kg jumps from a high bridge. After reaching his lowest point, he oscillates up and down, hitting
ololo11 [35]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of a bungee jumper is 65 kg

The time period of the oscillation is 38 s, hitting a low point eight more times.It means its time period is

T=\dfrac{38}{8}\\\\T=4.75\ s

After many oscillations, he finally comes to rest 25.0 m below the level of the bridge.

For an oscillating object, the time period is given by :

T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}

k = spring stiffness constant

So,

k=\dfrac{4\pi ^2m}{T^2}\\\\k=\dfrac{4\pi ^2\times 65}{(4.75)^2}\\\\k=113.43\ N/m

When the cord is in air,

mg=kx

x = the extension in the cord

x=\dfrac{mg}{k}\\\\x=\dfrac{65\times 9.8}{113.6}\\\\x=5.6\ m

So, the unstretched length of the bungee cord is equal to 25 m - 5.6 m = 19.4 m

5 0
3 years ago
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