Answer:
infinite solution
Step-by-step explanation:
because it is a linear equation.
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
loge(x) is ln(x)
f(x) × ln(x)
Differentiate using product law
[ln(x) × f'(x)] + [(1/x) × f(x)]
x = 1
[ln(1) × f'(1)] + [(1/1) × f(1)]
(0 × 4) + (1 × 2)
0 + 2
2
Answer:
yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is 892$ , i hope this helps u