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AlekseyPX
2 years ago
13

What is the average kinetic energy of an object's particles?

Physics
2 answers:
vova2212 [387]2 years ago
7 0

What is the average kinetic energy of an object's particles?

the answer is temperature

Lorico [155]2 years ago
4 0
The answer is Temperature!
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At t = 0, a flywheel has an angular velocity of 4.7 rad/s, a constant angular acceleration of −0.25 rad/s², and a reference line
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

Given that

ωo = 4.7 rad/s

α =  −0.25 rad/s²

θ₀ = 0

a)

For maximum turn angle ,the final angular (ω)speed of wheel should be zero.

ω² = ω²o - 2 α θ

0² = 4.7² - 2 x 0.25 x θ

θ=44.18 rad ≅44 rad  ( max)

b) and c)

We know that

\theta=\omega _ot-\dfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^2

θ = 1 /2 θmax

θ = 22 rad

\theta=\omega _ot-\dfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^2

22=4.7t-\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.25\times t^2

By solving above equation we get

t= 32.12 s

t=5.47 s

d) and e)

θ = -9.9 rad

\theta=\omega _ot-\dfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^2

-9.9=4.7t-\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.25\times t^2

By solving above equation we get

t= - s

t= 39.6 s

5 0
3 years ago
A train travels from Albuquerque, New Mexico, to Mexico City in 4 hours with an average velocity of 80 km/h to the south. What i
Ivenika [448]
The displacement of the train is equal to the velocity of the train multiplied by the time of travel. In this case,the average velocity is equal to 80 km/h and the time of travel is four hours. The answer is 80 km/h *4 h or equal to 320 km in total. Answer is 320 kilometers.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 21.1 Coulomb's Law. Three charged particles are placed at each of three corners of an equil
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

The force felt by charge 3 is F=(-5.6*10⁻⁶,3.36⁻⁵)N

Explanation:

As the superposition principle applies to static charges, we can find the net electric force as the sum of the two forces felt by q3.

Looking at the drawing and knowing that they form an equilateral triangle of lenght 4 we can conclude that each internal angle is 60°.

So, the positions in our coordinate system are:

r_1=(0,0)\\r_2=(4\ cos(60\°),4\ sin(60\°))\\r_3=(4,0)\\

Now  using Coulomb's force:

F_{ij}=\frac{-kq_iq_j}{d^2}(\vv{r}_j-\vv{r}_i)

Where d=4, q1 = -7.8*10⁻⁹C, q2 = -15.6 *10⁻⁹C, q3 = 8.0 *10⁻⁹C, k=8.98*10⁹, e0=8.8*10¹⁰:

Replacing we get 2 equations:

F_{13}=\frac{-kq_1q_3}{d^2}(\vv{r}_1-\vv{r}_3)=\frac{-kq_1q_2}{d^2}(-0.04\ cos(60\°),-0.04\ sin(60\°))\\\\F_{23}=\frac{-kq_2q_3}{d^2}(\vv{r}_1-\vv{r}_3)=\frac{-kq_1q_2}{d^2}(0.04-0.04\ cos(60\°),-0.04\ sin(60\°))\\

To work with the sam

F=∑F_i=3.5*10⁻⁴(0.023,0.032)+7*10⁻⁴(-0.016,0.032)=

=((3.5*10⁻⁴-7*10⁻⁴)*0.016,(3.5*10⁻⁴+7*10⁻⁴)*0.032)=

F=(-5.6*10⁻⁶,3.36⁻⁵)N

7 0
3 years ago
A box is sitting on the ground and weighs 100 kg and the coefficient of friction is 0.23. Is it easier to push by applying the f
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

-No

Explanation:

Given that

Mass of box = 100 kg

Coefficient of friction ,μ= 0.23

We know that friction force depends on the normal force acts on the box

Fr= μ N

When we pull the box then :

Normal force N= mg

Friction force Fr=  μ mg                  

When we push the box :

Lets take pushing force = F

θ =Angle make by pushing force from the vertical line

Normal force

N = mg + F cosθ

Fr= μ ( mg + F cosθ )

The friction force is more when we push the box.That is why this is not easier to push the box.

Therefore answer is ---No

7 0
3 years ago
If a charge travels through a magnetic field, it experiences a magnetic force and its velocity is perpendicular to the direction
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

cant see

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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