Answer:
A) The north pole of a bar magnet will attract the south pole of another bar magnet.
B) Earth's geographic north pole is actually a magnetic south pole.
E) The south poles of two bar magnets will repel each other.
Explanation:
<u>According to </u><u>classical physics</u>, a magnetic field always has two associated magnetic poles (north and south), the same happens with magnets. This means that if we break a magnet in half, we will have two magnets, where each new magnet will have a new south pole, and a new north pole.
This is because <u>for classical physics, naturally, magnetic monopoles can not exist. </u>
In this context, Earth is similar to a magnetic bar with a north pole and a south pole. This means, the axis that crosses the Earth from pole to pole is like a big magnet.
Now, by convention, on all magnets the north pole is where the magnetic lines of force leave the magnet and the south pole is where the magnetic lines of force enter the magnet.
Then, for the case of the Earth, the north pole of the magnet is located towards the geographic south pole and the south pole of the magnet is near the geographic north pole.
And it is for this reason, moreover, that the magnetic field lines enter the Earth through its magnetic south pole (which is the geographic north pole).
Hello,
The answer is "<span>0.00349 hL".
Reason:
34.9cL=0.00349hL
(Remember to go left 6 places when doing this question)
If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!
Hope this helps!
~Nonportrit
</span>
-- During the time the ball is flying from the high roof to the low roof,
it's going to fall (100-25) = 75 meters.
How long does it take an object dropped from rest to fall 75 meters ?
Distance = (1/2) · (gravity) · (time)²
75 m = (4.9 m/s²) · (time)²
Time² = (75 m) / (4.9 m/s²)
Time² = 15.31 sec²
Time = √(15.31 sec²) = 3.91 seconds
So the ball has to cover the horizontal distance of 20 meters
in 3.91 seconds.
Distance = (speed) · (time)
20 m = (speed) · (3.91 sec)
Speed = (20 m) / (3.91 sec)
Speed = 5.11 m/s
Answer:
e=58%
Explanation:
Given data
The Otto-cycle engine in a Mercedes-Benz SLK230 has a compression ratio of 8.8.
Solution
We want to calculate the ideal efficiency of the engine when ratio of heat capacity for gas used γ=1.40. Ideal efficiency (e) of the Otto cycle given by:
Substitute the given values to find efficiency e
e=58%
Answer:
The distance between two posts
Explanation:
As the students have already measured the amount of time necessary for the wave to oscillate up and down that is on the string between two posts,They have to measure the speed of the wave.
ie v=fλ
<em>They have to measure distance between the posts.
</em>
Because wavelength is equal to the distance between the posts ie full length of string.
The frequency of the wave is calculated by
f=
1/T
Where is the time period which the students have calculated ie the amount of time taken to oscillate up and down,
Thus the wave speed is calculated using formula
v=λ/T
