Answer:
L = μ₀ n r / 2I
Explanation:
This exercise we must relate several equations, let's start writing the voltage in a coil
= - L dI / dt
Let's use Faraday's law
E = - d Ф_B / dt
in the case of the coil this voltage is the same, so we can equal the two relationships
- d Ф_B / dt = - L dI / dt
The magnetic flux is the sum of the flux in each turn, if there are n turns in the coil
n d Ф_B = L dI
we can remove the differentials
n Ф_B = L I
magnetic flux is defined by
Ф_B = B . A
in this case the direction of the magnetic field is along the coil and the normal direction to the area as well, therefore the scalar product is reduced to the algebraic product
n B A = L I
the loop area is
A = π R²
we substitute
n B π R² = L I (1)
To find the magnetic field in the coil let's use Ampere's law
∫ B. ds = μ₀ I
where B is the magnetic field and s is the current circulation, in the coil the current circulates along the length of the coil
s = 2π R
we solve
B 2ππ R = μ₀ I
B = μ₀ I / 2πR
we substitute in
n ( μ₀ I / 2πR) π R² = L I
n μ₀ R / 2 = L I
L = μ₀ n r / 2I
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Low humidity is typically associated with cold temperatures since cold air holds less water compared to warm air. While it is possible for indoor humidity to be as low as 10%, most people generally find humidity levels of about 40 to 45 percent comfortable.
Answer:
m³/(kg⋅s²)
Explanation:
Hello.
In this case, since the involved formula is:

By writing a dimensional analysis with the proper algebra handling, we obtain:
![N[=]G*\frac{kg*kg}{m^2}\\ \\kg*\frac{m}{s^2}[=]G *\frac{kg*kg}{m^2}\\\\G[=]\frac{kg*m*m^2}{kg^2*s^2}\\ \\G[=]\frac{m^3}{kg*s^2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=N%5B%3D%5DG%2A%5Cfrac%7Bkg%2Akg%7D%7Bm%5E2%7D%5C%5C%20%5C%5Ckg%2A%5Cfrac%7Bm%7D%7Bs%5E2%7D%5B%3D%5DG%20%2A%5Cfrac%7Bkg%2Akg%7D%7Bm%5E2%7D%5C%5C%5C%5CG%5B%3D%5D%5Cfrac%7Bkg%2Am%2Am%5E2%7D%7Bkg%5E2%2As%5E2%7D%5C%5C%20%5C%5CG%5B%3D%5D%5Cfrac%7Bm%5E3%7D%7Bkg%2As%5E2%7D)
Thus, answer is:
m³/(kg⋅s²)
Note that the [=] is used to indicate the units of G.
Best regards
Answer:
λ = 0.4 x 10⁻⁶ m = 400 nm
Explanation:
The relationship between frequency, wavelength and speed of an electromagnetic wave is given as follows:

where,
c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s
f = frequency of the light wave = 7.5 x 10¹⁴ Hz
λ = wavelength of the light = ?
Therefore,

<u>λ = 0.4 x 10⁻⁶ m = 400 nm</u>
Answer:
-5m/s
Explanation:
Since
acceleration=final velocity-initial velocity/time
2.5m/s^2=20m/s- initial velocity/10s
2.5m/s^2×10s= 20m/s -initial velocity
25m/s=20m/s - initial velocity
Initial velocity=20m/s-25m/s
= -5m/s