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Airida [17]
3 years ago
5

1. What are valence electrons used for by an element?

Physics
1 answer:
jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

An element's valence electron tells us about its ability to react and not react. More rules to this, but that's the gist of it. it also helps us form bonds

Explanation:

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Calculate the horizontal force that must be applied to a 1,300 kg vehicle to give it an acceleration of 2.6 m/s² on a level road
ANEK [815]
The answer is 3,380 N
4 0
3 years ago
What are the factors that effect the strength of a frictional force???
seropon [69]

If you write down the formula for friction, you will get an answer.

Ff = u * N               Where N is a push down force that an object experiences.

                              u (mu) is a constant and has no units

It may not be accelerating and still experience friction. A is not correct.

Color and Density will not affect the frictional force. B is not so.

Buoyant forces are a different thing altogether. Generally friction has nothing to do with them. C is incorrect.

The last one is your answer. Technically mg should be the answer and not mass, but the second part is correct.

5 0
3 years ago
Water has the ability to dissolve polar covalent molecules like sucrose by
Alla [95]

Explanation:

Sucrose is a disaccharide which is composed of fructose and glucose. Sucrose molecule has oxygen atoms bonded to hydrogen atoms (O-H bonds - Polar groups) on all ends of its double 6-Carbon ring. The areas near the oxygen atoms are slightly negative, and the areas near the hydrogen atoms are slightly positive that is, the O-H bonds are polar. They bond with the neighbouring Oxygen and Hydrogen atoms because of their

dipole - dipole attractions and hence hydrogen bonds are formed.

However, the covalent bonds within the molecule aren't broken. But rather, the hydrogen bonds holding the sucrose molecules in the crystalline lattice.

5 0
3 years ago
A 2.3 kg particle-like object moves in a plane with velocity components vx = 40 m/s and vy = 75 m/s as it passes through the poi
Sonbull [250]

Answer:

(a) \overrightarrow{L}=885.5\widehat{k}

(b) \overrightarrow{L}=1046.5\widehat{k}

Explanation:

mass, m = 2.3 kg

vx = 40 m/s

vy = 75 m/s

(a) Angular momentum is given by

\overrightarrow{L}=\overrightarrow{r}\times \overrightarrow{p}

Where, p is the linear momentum and r is the position vector about which the angular momentum is calculated.

Here, \overrightarrow{r}=3\widehat{i}-4\widehat{j}

\overrightarrow{p}=m\overrightarrow{v}

\overrightarrow{p}=2.3\left ( 40\widehat{i}+75\widehat{j} \right )

\overrightarrow{p}= 92\widehat{i}+172.5\widehat{j}

So, the angular momentum

\overrightarrow{L}=\left ( 3\widehat{i}-4\widehat{j} \right )\times\left ( 92\widehat{i}+172.5\widehat{j} \right )

\overrightarrow{L}=885.5\widehat{k}

(b) Here, \overrightarrow{r}=(3+2)\widehat{i}+(-4+2)\widehat{j}

\overrightarrow{r}=5\widehat{i}-2\widehat{j}

\overrightarrow{L}=\left ( 5\widehat{i}-2\widehat{j} \right )\times\left ( 92\widehat{i}+172.5\widehat{j} \right )

\overrightarrow{L}=1046.5\widehat{k}

6 0
3 years ago
A machine has a mechanical advantage of 4.5. What force is put out by the machine if the force applied to the machine is 800 N?
Ghella [55]

If the machine's mechanical advantage is 4.5, that means that

Output force = (4.5) x (Input force) .

We know the input force, and we need to find the output force.  Rather than wander around the room looking at the floor while our hair smolders, let's try putting the numbers we know into the equation I wrote up there.  OK ?

Output force = (4.5) x (Input force)

Output force = (4.5) x (800 N)

Now dooda multiplication:

<em>Output force = 3,600 N</em> .  

That's exactly what the question asked for.  So we're done !

3 0
3 years ago
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