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3 years ago

A 30kg boxed is pushed with a force of 20N. What is the boxes acceleration. Please show work

Physics

1 answer:

kozerog [31]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

<h3>The answer is 0.67 m/s²</h3>

Explanation:

The acceleration of an object given it's mass and the force acting on it can be found by using the formula

$a = \frac{f}{m} \\$

f is the force

m is the mass

From the question we have

$a = \frac{20}{30} = \frac{2}{3} \\ = 0.6666666...$

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

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What is true about all uranium atoms?they each have the same number of nuclear particles.they each have the same number of neutr

Debora [2.8K]

The correct answer is:

same number of protons

Explanation:

Uranium is the complex atom that happens in nature. Uranium has 92 protons and 92 electrons. Similar other heavy atoms such as iron, uranium atoms have added neutrons than they do protons. Not all uranium atoms have the same number of neutrons.

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3 years ago

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At an instant in time, the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are given by - -6.25 x 10-3 v/m and B = -2.08

Yuri [45]

Answer:

Poynting vector, $S=1.03\times 10^{7}\ W/m^2$

Explanation:

It is given that, The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are given by :

Electric field, $E=6.25\times 10^{-3}\ V/m$

Magnetic field, $B=2.08\times 10^{-11}\ T$

We need to find the Poynting vector for this wave. the Poynting vector is given by :

$S=\dfrac{1}{\mu_o}EB$

$S=\dfrac{1}{4\pi \times 10^{-7}}\times 6.25\times 10^{-3}\times 2.08\times 10^{-11}$

$S=1.03\times 10^{7}\ W/m^2$

So, the Poynting vector for this wave is $1.03\times 10^{7}\ W/m^2$ . Hence, this is the required solution.

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4 years ago

xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer: A. All of the answers are correct.

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4 years ago

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spectroscope or a spectrometer is an instrument which is used for separating the components of light, which have different wavel

ohaa [14]

Answer:

The answer is B

Explanation:

The line spectrum shows distinct light different energies and wavelengths

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3 years ago

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Normalize the equations

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

Solution is in explanation

Explanation:

part a)

For normalization we have

$\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k$

Part b)

$\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1$

$\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(icos(-kL)+sin(kL)+\frac{1}{i})=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}sin(kL)=1\\\\a=\frac{k}{sin(kL)}$

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4 years ago