D. If both boys remain on the treadmill for 10 minutes, Xavier will have traveled a greater distance.

What are the smallest and largest possible numbers in base 3?

adelina 88 [10]

Our number system is in base 10. The ones place holds digits 0 - 9. When you reach 10, you must add another place value (the tens place).

Base 3 is digits 0-2 becasue when you reach 3, you need to add another place value.

Therefore, the smallest number is 0 and the largest number is 2.

Answer: smallest = 0, largest = 2

3 0

3 years ago

What is 80%of 40equals what

kari74 [83]

If you would like to solve 80% of 40, you can do this using the following steps:

80% of 40 = 80% * 40 = 80/100 * 40 = 32

The correct result would be 32.

7 0

3 years ago

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2.10 Guessing on an exam: In a multiple choice exam, there are 6 questions and 4 choices for each question (a, b, c, d). Nancy h

ololo11 [35]

Answer:

a) $p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593$

b) $P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244$

c) $P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule like this:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

$P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798$

And replacing we have:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: $P(A)+P(A') =1$

We can model the number of correct questions answered with a binomial distribution $X \sim Binom(n = 6, p = 1/4=0.25)$

Solution to the problem

Assuming the following questions:

a) the first question she gets right is the 6th question?

For this case we want the first 5 questions incorrect and the last one correct, assuming independence we have:

$p = (3/4)^5 *(1/4) =0.0593$

(b) she gets all of the questions right?

For this case we want all the questions right so then we want this:

$P(X=6) = (6C6) (0.25)^6 (1-0.25)^{6-6}= 0.000244$

(c) she gets at least one question right?

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule like this:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

$P(X=0) = (6C0) (0.25)^0 (1-0.25)^{6-0}= 0.17798$

And replacing we have:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

7 0

2 years ago

Help ASAP!!!!

lukranit [14]

Answer:

$0.23 or D

Step-by-step explanation:

Edg :)

5 0

3 years ago

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Angel paints three rooms with two gallons of paint. How many rooms can he paint with fifteen gallons of paint?

Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

22 rooms

Step-by-step explanation:

If two gallons of paint covers 3 rooms then you need to divide 15 gallons of paint by 2 gallons of paint = 7.5 gallons of paint. then you need to multiply 7.5 gallons of paint by 3 rooms = 22.5..... so that means you can paint 22 full rooms.

6 0

3 years ago