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djyliett [7]
3 years ago
13

How do simple machines magnify forces?

Physics
1 answer:
olganol [36]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Motion at one end of the beam results in motion at the other end in the opposite direction.

Explanation:

The location of the fulcrum can magnify (or reduce) the force applied at one end at the expense (or advantage) of the distance over which the other end travels. Sorry if I get this wrong! I am in 5th grade. ♥

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I think the answers March 21

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A ball is dropped from the roof of a 25-m-tall building. What is the velocity of the object when it touches the ground? Suppose
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

a)  h=25m

b)  v=19.8m/sec

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Height h=25m

Bounce Height h'=20m

Generally the Kinematic equation is mathematically given by

V=\sqrt{2gh}\\\\V=\sqrt{2*9.81*25}

V=22.1m/sec

Therefore Height

h=\frac{V^2}{2g}\\\\h=\frac{22.1^2}{2*9.81}

h=25m

b)

Generally the Kinematic equation is mathematically given by

v^2=2ah

v^2=2*9.8*20

v=\sqrt{2*9.8*20}

v=19.8m/sec

3 0
3 years ago
A stone initially moving at 8.0 m/s on a level surface comes to rest due to friction after it travels 11 m. What is the coeffici
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

Coefficient of friction will be 0.296

Explanation:

We have given initial speed of the stone u = 8 m /sec

It comes to rest so final speed v = 0 m /sec

Distance traveled before coming to rest s = 11 m

According to third equation of motion

v^2=u^2+2as

So 0^2=8^2+2\times a\times 11

a=\frac{-64}{22}=-2.90m/sec^2

Acceleration due to gravity g=9.8m/sec^2

We know that acceleration is given by

a=\mu g

So 2.90=9.8\times \mu \\

\mu =\frac{2.9}{9.8}=0.296

So coefficient of friction will be 0.296

3 0
3 years ago
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