If an electron, a proton, and a deuteron move in a magnetic field with the same momentum perpendicularly, the ratio of the radii of their circular paths will be:
<h3>How is the ratio of the perpendicular parts obtained?</h3>
To obtain the ratio of the perpendicular parts, one begins bdy noting that the mass of the proton = 1m, the mass of deuteron = 2m, and the mass of the alpha particle = 4m.
The ratio of the radii of the parts can be obtained by finding the root of the masses and dividing this by the charge. When the coefficients are substituted into the formula, we will have:
r = √m/e : √2m/e : √4m/2e
When resolved, the resulting ratios will be:
1: √2 : 1
Learn more about the radii of their circular paths here:
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<span>The ball clears by 11.79 meters
Let's first determine the horizontal and vertical velocities of the ball.
h = cos(50.0)*23.4 m/s = 0.642788 * 23.4 m/s = 15.04 m/s
v = sin(50.0)*23.4 m/s = 0.766044 * 23.4 m/s = 17.93 m/s
Now determine how many seconds it will take for the ball to get to the goal.
t = 36.0 m / 15.04 m/s = 2.394 s
The height the ball will be at time T is
h = vT - 1/2 A T^2
where
h = height of ball
v = initial vertical velocity
T = time
A = acceleration due to gravity
So plugging into the formula the known values
h = vT - 1/2 A T^2
h = 17.93 m/s * 2.394 s - 1/2 9.8 m/s^2 (2.394 s)^2
h = 42.92 m - 4.9 m/s^2 * 5.731 s^2
h = 42.92 m - 28.0819 m
h = 14.84 m
Since 14.84 m is well above the crossbar's height of 3.05 m, the ball clears. It clears by 14.84 - 3.05 = 11.79 m</span>
Answer:
The current is
The direction is anti-clockwise
Explanation:
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
the length of the conducting rod is 
The resistance is 
The magnetic field is 
The speed of the rod is 
The emf induced is
substituting values we have


From ohm law the induced current would be

substituting values we have

The direction anticlockwise this because according to lenze law the current due to change in magnetic field will act in the opposite direction of the force causing the magnetic field to change
Answer:
To calculate the mechanical advantage of a pulley you simply have to count the number of rope sections that support whatever object you are lifting (not counting the rope that is attached to the effort)
Example:
For example, in a one pulley system the MA is 1. In a two pulley system the MA is 2. The more compound the pulley is the easier the load is to lift. If you were lifting a 600kg object with 2 pulleys you would have to use enough effort to pull 300kg to lift the 600kg object! Therefore your mechanical advantage would be 2 (600/300).
MA= load/effort OR number of rope sections