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VikaD [51]
3 years ago
9

A small metal object is tied to the end of a string and whirled round a circular path of radius 30cm. The object makes 20 oscill

ations in 5 seconds. Calculate: the angular and linear speeds of the object
Physics
1 answer:
LUCKY_DIMON [66]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(i) The angular speed of the small metal object is 25.133 rad/s

(ii) The linear speed of the small metal object is 7.54 m/s.

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the circular path, r = 30 cm = 0.3 m

number of revolutions, n = 20

time of motion, t = 5 s

(i) The angular speed of the small metal object is calculated as;

\omega = \frac{20 \ rev}{5 \ s} \times \frac{2 \pi \ rad}{1 \ rev} = \frac{40\pi \ rad}{5 \ s} = 8\pi \ rad/s = 25.133 \ rad/s

(ii) The linear speed of the small metal object is calculated as;

v = \omega r\\\\v = 25.133 \ rad/s \ \times \ 0.3 \ m\\\\v = 7.54 \ m/s

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How far can a person run in 15 minutes if he runs at an average speed of 16 km/hr?
anygoal [31]

Answer:

4km

Explanation:

15 minutes is 1/4 of an hour.

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3 years ago
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2 years ago
A signal source that is most conveniently represented by its Th´evenin equivalent has vs = 10 mV and Rs = 1 k. If the source fee
gogolik [260]

Answer:

RL=100K → Vo=9.90 mV

RL=10K → Vo=9.09 mV

RL=1K → Vo=5 mV

RL=100 → Vo=909.09 μV

In order to obtain 80% of the power source we have to put a resistor of 4 KOhm.

Explanation:

Here we have a power source in serie with a resistor of 1K and  RL, in order to obtain the Vo voltage we have to apply the voltage divider rule, that states:

Vo=Vin*\frac{RL}{RL+R1} \\R1=1kOhm

Substituing the resistor values of RL we obtained the following results:

RL=100K → Vo=9.90 mV

RL=10K → Vo=9.09 mV

RL=1K → Vo=5 mV

RL=100 → Vo=909.09 μV

In order to find the lowest value that gives us 80% of the source voltage we have to use the voltage divider rule again and make the Vo equal to 0.8 Vin:

0.8*Vin=Vin*\frac{RL}{RL+R1}

The result of the last equation is 4000, so in order to obtain 80% of the power source we have to put a resistor of 4 KOhm.

8 0
3 years ago
A proton and an electron are both accelerated to the same final speed. If λp s the de Broglie wavelength of the proton and e is
meriva

Answer:

Explanation:

The relation between the de Broglie wavelength and the momentum of the particle is given by

\lambda =\frac{h}{m\times v}

where, m is the mas of the particle and v be the velocity of the particle and h be the Plank's constant.  

So, the de broglie wavelength of proton is given by

\lambda _{p}=\frac{h}{m_{p}\times v} .... (1)

The de broglie wavelength of electron is given by

\lambda _{e}=\frac{h}{m_{e}\times v} .... (2)

Divide equation (2) by equation (1), we get

\frac{\lambda _{e}}{\lambda _{p}}=\frac{m_{p}}{m_{e}}

As the mass of proton is much more than the mass of electron, so the de broglie wavelength of electron is more than the de Broglie wavelength of proton.

5 0
3 years ago
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