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adell [148]
2 years ago
7

What is the formula for Newton's second law?

Physics
2 answers:
wolverine [178]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

F = m * a

Explanation:

2nd law of motion

Setler [38]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

f=ma

Explanation:

You might be interested in
A force acting over a large area will exert less pressure per square inch than the same force acting over a smaller area.
babunello [35]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Pressure is defined as:

p=\frac{F}{A}

where

F is the magnitude of the force perpendicular to the surface

A is the surface

Therefore, pressure is inversely proportional to the area of the surface:

p\propto \frac{1}{A}

this means that, assuming that the forces in the two situations (which have same magnitude) are both applied perpendicular to the surface, the force exerted over the smaller area will exert a greater pressure. Hence, the statement"

<em>"A force acting over a large area will exert less pressure per square inch than the same force acting over a smaller area"</em>

is true.

8 0
3 years ago
A 90 kg astronaut Travis is stranded in space at a point 12 m from his spaceship. In order to get back to his ship, Travis throw
insens350 [35]

Answer:

Explanation:

This is a recoil problem, which is just another application of the Law of Momentum Conservation. The equation for us is:

[m_av_a+m_ev_e]_b=[m_av_a+m_ev_e]_a which, in words, is

The momentum of the astronaut plus the momentum of the piece of equipment before the equipment is thrown has to be equal to the momentum of all that same stuff after the equipment is thrown. Filling in:

[(90.0)(0)+(.50)(0)]_b=[(90.0)(v)+(.50)(-4.0)]_a

Obviously, on the left side of the equation, nothing is moving so the whole left side equals 0. Doing the math on the right and paying specific attention to the sig fig's here (notice, I added a 0 after the 4 in the velocity value so our sig fig's are 2 instead of just 1. 1 is useless in most applications).

0 = 90.0v - 2.0 and

2.0 = 90.0v so

v = .022 m/s This is the rate at which he is moving TOWARDS the ship (negative was moving away from the ship, as indicated by the - in the problem). Now we can use the d = rt equation to find out how long this process will take him if he wants to reach his ship before he dies.

12 = .022t and

t = 550 seconds, which is the same thing as 9.2 minutes

7 0
3 years ago
Why is the mechanical advantage of using a single pulley always 1? Assume there’s no friction. A. The input force is in a differ
STALIN [3.7K]

The answer  is D. The input force is equal to the output force.

I just did test and got it right

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Momentum quiz for physics
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

p=mv=(813kg)(17)= 13,821 kg m\s

7 0
3 years ago
A 5.0-kg box rests on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and surface is ????K=0.50. A hor
blagie [28]

Answer:

a)W= 1 J

b)W= 1 J

c)W= 0 J

Explanation:

Given that

m = 5 kg

Coefficient of kinetic friction,K=0.5

d= 10 cm

We know that if velocity is constant it means that the acceleration of the system is zero.Or we can say that all forces are balance in the system.

We know that work is the dot product of force and displacement

W= F.d

The friction force on the box

Fr= K m g

Fr= 0.5 x 5 x 10 = 25 N                      ( take g =10 m/s²)

Fr=25 N

a)

Acceleration a= 0

So horizontal force F = Fr

W = Fr.d

W=10 x 0.1 J

W= 1 J

b)

The work done by friction force

W= 1 J

c)

The net force on the system is zero because acceleration is zero.

F= 0

So

W= 0 J

3 0
3 years ago
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