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3 years ago

8

Marta, Cato, and Juan plan a skit to illustrate one of the methods of charging.

2 answers:

svet-max [94.6K]3 years ago

7 0

d) It models induction because the offer of flowers represents a charged object that causes an electron (a flower) to transfer from one object to another.

Mashutka [201]3 years ago

5 0

The last answer choice

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How is a family defined

natulia [17]

Answer:Family

Explanation: Family is defined as people you love, people that you can count on. People that make you happy. Family isnt only people who are related to you by blood, we are all a family. Certain people are your family.

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3 years ago

One watt is A. equal to one kilogram per second B. the power that can be delivered by an average horse C. the same as one-foot p

Naddik [55]

Answer:

D. the proper replacement unit for one joule per second

Explanation:

When energy is divided by the time the energy was used we get power

$P=\dfrac{E}{t}\\\Rightarrow P=\dfrac{mv^2}{t}\\\Rightarrow P=\dfrac{kg(\dfrac{m^2}{s^2})}{s}\\\Rightarrow P=kg(\dfrac{m^2}{s^2})}\times \dfrac{1}{s}\\\Rightarrow P=\dfrac{kgm^2}{s^3}$

$kg\dfrac{m^2}{s^2}=Joule$

$P=\dfrac{kgm^2}{s^3}$

So, the answer is D. the proper replacement unit for one joule per second

8 0

3 years ago

wo fixed charges, A and B are located at x axis. A is at x = 0 m, B is at x = 4 m. QA = +4.0 μC and QB = -5.0 μC. Calculate the

lys-0071 [83]

Answer:

10250 N/C leftwards

Explanation:

QA = 4 micro Coulomb

QB = - 5 micro Coulomb

AP = 6 m

BP = 2 m

A is origin, B is at 4 m and P is at 6 m .

The electric field due to charge QA at P is EA rightwards

$E_{A}=\frac{KQ_{A}}{AP^{2}}=\frac{9\times10^{9}\times4\times10^{-6}}{6^{2}}=1000 N/C (rightwards)$

The electric field due to charge QB at P is EB leftwards

$E_{B}=\frac{KQ_{B}}{BP^{2}}=\frac{9\times10^{9}\times5\times10^{-6}}{2^{2}}=11250 N/C (leftwards)$

The resultant electric field at P due the charges is given by

E = EB - EA

E = 11250 - 1000 = 10250 N/C leftwards

5 0

3 years ago

Convert 0.700 atm of pressure to its equivalent in millimeters of mercury.

inna [77]

Answer:

532 millimeters of mercury

Explanation:

In order to convert the pressure from atm to millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), we should remind the conversion factor between the two units:

1 atm = 760 mm Hg

Therefore, we can solve the problem by setting up the following proportion:

$1 atm : 760 mmHg = 0.700 atm : x$

Solving for x, we find

$x=\frac{(760 mmHg)(0.700 atm)}{1 atm}=532 mmHg$

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3 years ago

An object weighs 42.53 newtons. What is its mass if a gravitometer indicates that g = 9.83 m/s2? Round to the nearest tenth.

enot [183]

42.53/9.83 = 4.3265.... = 4.3

3 0

3 years ago

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