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stellarik [79]
3 years ago
11

Which statement best compares a scientific theory and an opinion?

Physics
1 answer:
Furkat [3]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: c opinion is something ppl just suggest but a theory needs proof before it is confirmed

You might be interested in
Find the angle formed by two forces of 7N and 15N respectively if its result is worth 20N
nadezda [96]
First, you need to make certain assumptions before solving this question. Why? Because there are no information given about the direction of these forces. In such questions as above, ALWAYS make the following assumptions:

1) Take first force, say F_{1}, and assume that it is pointing towards the x-direction.

Let us take the 7N force! By keeping the above assumption in our minds, the force vector would be like:
F_{1} = 7i, where i = Unit vector in the x-direction.

2) Take the second force, say F_{2}, and assume that it is making an angle \alpha with the first force F_{1}.

Let us take the 15N force! By keeping the above assumption in our minds, the forces vector would be like:

F_{2} = (15*cos \alpha)i + (15*sin \alpha )j

Now from simple vector addition, we know that,
F_{R} = F_{1} + F_{2} --- (A)

Where F_{R} = Resultant vector.
NOTE: In equation (A), all forces are in vector notation. Assume that there is an arrow head on top of them.

Let us find F_{1}+F_{2} first!
F_{1}+F_{2} =  7i+(15*cos \alpha)i + (15*sin \alpha )j

=> F_{1}+F_{2} =  (7+15*cos \alpha)i + (15*sin \alpha )j

Now the magnitude of F_{1}+F_{2} is,
| F_{1}+F_{2}| = \sqrt{ (7+ 15*cos \alpha)^{2} +  (15*sin \alpha )^{2}}

=> | F_{1}+F_{2}| = \sqrt{ 49 + 225*(cos \alpha)^{2} + 210*(cos \alpha)+ 255*(sin \alpha )^{2}}

Since (sin \alpha)^{2} + (cos \alpha)^{2} = 1, therefore,

=> | F_{1}+F_{2}| = \sqrt{ 49 + 225 + 210*(cos \alpha)}

Since  | F_{1}+F_{2}| = |F_{R}|, and the magnitude of the resultant force is 20N, therefore,

 |F_{R}| = | F_{1}+F_{2}|
20 = \sqrt{ 49 + 225 + 210*(cos \alpha)}

Take square on both sides,
400 = 49 + 225 + 210*(cos \alpha)
(cos \alpha) =  \frac{3}{5}

\alpha = 53.13^{o}

Ans: Angle formed by the two forces, 7N and 15N, is: 53.13°

-israr

4 0
3 years ago
The diagram shown represents a block-and-tackle pulley system on which an effort of W Newtons supports a load of 120.0N. If the
natta225 [31]

Answer:

50 N

Explanation:

Efficiency of a machine can't be more than 1, so I assume you mean 40%.  (Remember, efficiency and mechanical advantage are not the same).

Efficiency is the ratio of work out of a system to the work in to the system.

e = Wout / Win

Work is force times distance, so:

e = (Fout × Dout) / (Fin × Din)

Rearranging:

Fin = (Fout × Dout) / (e × Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) × (Dout / Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) / (Din / Dout)

We know that e = 0.40, and Fout = 120 N.  Since there are 6 pulleys, we also know that Din/Dout = 6.

F = (120 N / 0.4) / 6

F = 50 N

5 0
3 years ago
When a 109 dB sound wave comes through an open window of area 0.485 m2, how much acoustic energy passes through the window in a
Ksju [112]

Answer:

57dB

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
A rubber ball that sits motionless near the edge of a tall bookshelf has no kinetic energy. However, it does have mechanical
klio [65]

It is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.

<h3>What is mechanical energy?</h3>

Mechanical energy of an object is the total energy possessed by the object, including the potential energy and the kinetic energy.

M.A = K.E + P.E

<h3>What is kinetic energy?</h3>

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its motion.

<h3>What is potential energy?</h3>

Potential energy is the energy possessed by an object due to its position.

When kinetic energy (K.E) = 0

M.A = P.E

Thus, it is possible because the rubber ball has mechanical energy which is equal to potential energy.

Learn more about mechanical energy here: brainly.com/question/24443465

8 0
3 years ago
The internal shear force V at a certain section of a steel beam is 80 kN, and the moment of inertia is 64,900,000 . Determine th
Luba_88 [7]

Here is the complete question

The internal shear force V at a certain section of a steel beam is 80 kN, and the moment of inertia is 64,900,000 . Determine the horizontal shear stress at point H, which is located L  = 20 mm below the centriod

The missing image which is the remaining part of this question is attached in the image below.

Answer:

The horizontal shear stress at point H is  \mathbf{\tau_H \approx  42.604 \ N/mm^2}

Explanation:

Given that :

The internal shear force V  =  80 kN = 80 × 10³ N

The moment of inertia = 64,900,000

The length = 20 mm below the centriod

The horizontal shear stress  \tau can be calculated by using the equation:

\tau = \dfrac{VQ}{Ib}

where;

Q = moment of area above or below the point H

b = thickness of the beam = 10  mm

From the centroid ;

Q = Q_1 + Q_{2}

Q = A_1y_1 + A_{2}y_{2}  

Q = ( ( 70 × 10) × (55) + ( 210 × 15) (90 + 15/2) ) mm³

Q = ( ( 700) × (55) + ( 3150 ) ( 97.5)  ) mm³

Q = ( 38500 +  307125 ) mm³

Q = 345625 mm³

\tau_H = \dfrac{VQ}{Ib}

\tau_H = \dfrac{80*10^3  * 345625}{64900000*10 }

\tau_H = \dfrac{2.765*10^{10}}{649000000 }

\tau_H = 42.60400616 \ N/mm^2

\mathbf{\tau_H \approx  42.604 \ N/mm^2}

The horizontal shear stress at point H is  \mathbf{\tau_H \approx  42.604 \ N/mm^2}

7 0
3 years ago
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