Answer:
Solution is in explanation
Explanation:
part a)
For normalization we have
![\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7Df%28x%29dx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7Dae%5E%7B-kx%7Ddx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20a%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7De%5E%7B-kx%7Ddx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-k%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Be%5E%7Bkx%7D%7D%5D_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%20%7D%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-k%7D%5B0-1%5D%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20a%3Dk)
Part b)
![\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7Df%28x%29dx%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20Re%28%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7Dae%5E%7B-ikx%7Ddx%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20Re%28a%5Cint_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%20%7De%5E%7B-ikx%7Ddx%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Ctherefore%20Re%28%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-ik%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7Be%5E%7Bikx%7D%7D%5D_%7B0%7D%5E%7BL%7D%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5CRightarrow%20Re%28%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B-ik%7D%28e%5E%7B-ikL%7D-1%29%29%3D1%5C%5C%5C%5C%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7Bk%7DRe%28%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B-i%7D%28cos%28-kL%29%2Bisin%28-kL%29-1%29%29%3D1)
more deceleration.
in vertical motion downwards => terminal velocity ... raindrops etc
This problem is a piece o' cake, IF you know the formulas for both kinetic energy and momentum. So here they are:
Kinetic energy = (1/2) · (mass) · (speed²)
Momentum = (mass) · (speed)
So, now ... We know that
==> mass = 15 kg, and
==> kinetic energy = 30 Joules
Take those pieces of info and pluggum into the formula for kinetic energy:
Kinetic energy = (1/2) · (mass) · (speed²)
30 Joules = (1/2) · (15 kg) · (speed²)
60 Joules = (15 kg) · (speed²)
4 m²/s² = speed²
Speed = 2 m/s
THAT's all you need ! Now you can find momentum:
Momentum = (mass) · (speed)
Momentum = (15 kg) · (2 m/s)
<em>Momentum = 30 kg·m/s</em>
<em>(Notice that in this problem, although their units are different, the magnitude of the KE is equal to the magnitude of the momentum. When I saw this, I wondered whether that's always true. So I did a little more work, and I found out that it isn't ... it's a coincidence that's true for this problem and some others, but it's usually not true.)</em>
. we need like a picture you something what’re you trying to ask
Answer:
Negative z-direction
Explanation:
First of all, we need to understand the direction of the magnetic force on the proton. This can be determined by using the right hand rule. So we have:
- index finger: direction of the proton, positive x-direction
- middle finger: direction of magnetic field, positive y-direction
- thumb: direction of the force, positive z-direction
In order to balance this magnetic force, the electric force must act in the opposite direction (negative z direction). Since for a proton (positive charge) the force and the electric field have same direction, it means that the electric field must also be in the negative z direction.
