What is the speed of a bobsled whose distance-time graph indicates that it traveled 119m in 27s

5. the combustion of a single molecule of methane produces about 10 ev of energy. a methane molecule has a mass of 16 amu. the f

Alchen [17]

The mass of methane will produce as much energy as a single gram of uranium-235 1,287 kilograms of methane. Option D is correct.

<h3>What is uranium?</h3>

Uranium, with the atomic number 92 and the symbol U in the periodic table, is a weakly radioactive element. One of the heavy metals that may be used as a concentrated energy source is uranium.

Given data;

⇒One mole of U-235 = 235 grams

=> 1 gram of U-235 = 1/235 moles

⇒1 mole of U-235 = 6.023 x 10²³ atoms

The no of atoms is;

=> 1/235 moles of U-235

⇒N = 6.023 x 10²³/235 atoms

⇒N=25.6 x 10²⁰ atoms

If one atom of U-235 gives is 189 x 10⁶ eV energy,25.6 x 10²⁰ atoms of U-235 gives;

=> 25.6 x 10²⁰ atoms of U-235 gives;

E = 25.6 x 10²⁰ x 189 x 10⁶

E= 4.8 x 10²⁹ eV energy

One methane molecule produces;

E = 10 eV of energy

=> To produce 4.8 x 10²⁹ eV energy, no. of molecules required;

= 4.8 x 10²⁸

6.032 x 10²³ molecules of methane = 16 gms

=> 4.8 x 10²⁸ molecules of methane = 16 x 4.8 x 10²⁸/ 6.032 x 10²³ gms

m= 12.75 x 10⁵ gms

m= 1275 kilograms of methane

m≅ 1287 kilograms of methane

1 gram of U-235 has the same amount of energy as 1287 kilograms of methane.

Hence option D is correct,

To learn more about uranium refer to the link;

brainly.com/question/9099776

#SPJ1

7 0

2 years ago

Can spoon ring like a bell prove it

mote1985 [20]

Yes spoon can sound like a bell. To prove this, we perform an experiment.The handle of the spoon is tied at the mid point of the string, then wrap the ends of the string around pointer fingers. Now place fingers in ears. Lean over so that spoon hangs freely and swing the spoon so it taps against a door.
A sound is produced because the spoon vibrated, causing sound waves to travel up the string and into ears.

4 0

3 years ago

A rock is attached to the left end of a uniform meter stick that has the same mass as the rock. How far from the left end of the

kotykmax [81]

Answer:

M₂ = M then L₂ = L

M₂> M then L₂ = \frac{M}{M_{2}} L

Explanation:

This is a static equilibrium exercise, to solve it we must fix a reference system at the turning point, generally in the center of the rod. By convention counterclockwise turns are considered positive

∑ τ = 0

The mass of the rock is M and placed at a distance, L the mass of the rod M₁, is considered to be placed in its center of mass, which by uniform e is in its geometric center (x = 0) and the triangular mass M₂, with a distance L₂

The triangular shape of the second object determines that its mass can be considered concentrated in its geometric center (median) that tapers with a vertical line if the triangle is equilateral, the most used shape in measurements.

M L + M₁ 0 - m₂ L₂ = 0

M L - m₂ L₂ = 0

L₂ = $\frac{M}{M_{2}}$ L

From this answer we have several possibilities

* if the two masses are equal then L₂ = L

* If the masses are different, with M₂> M then L₂ = \frac{M}{M_{2}} L

6 0

3 years ago

PLEASE HELP IM CONFUSED

Fittoniya [83]

Sound waves can be used in a similar way to "see" things. After turning on a sound source, we can look at the pattern of reflected sound waves that bounce back to us. Our own ears and brain don't process sound into mental pictures.

3 0

3 years ago

A flat surface is in a uniform magnetic field. Given only the area of the surface and the magnetic flux through the surface, it

Tasya [4]

Answer:

Given the area A of a flat surface and the magnetic flux through the surface $\Phi$ it is possible to calculate the magnitude $\frac{\Phi}{A}=B\ cos \theta$ .

Explanation:

The magnetic flux gives an idea of how many magnetic field lines are passing through a surface. The SI unit of the magnetic flux $\Phi$ is the weber (Wb), of the magnetic field B is the tesla (T) and of the area A is ( $m^{2}$ ). So 1 Wb=1 T.m².

For a flat surface S of area A in a uniform magnetic field B, with $\theta$ being the angle between the vector normal to the surface S and the direction of the magnetic field B, we define the magnetic flux through the surface as:

$\Phi=B\ A\ cos\theta$

We are told the values of $\Phi$ and B, then we can calculate the magnitude

$\frac{\Phi}{A}=B\ cos\theta$

3 0

3 years ago