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Crazy boy [7]
3 years ago
15

How do we simplify 3 2/6 ?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
makkiz [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Well you wanna keep the 3 there but first divided the 2 by the 2 and divided 2 by the 6, so then you will get your answer 3 1/3

alexgriva [62]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

3\frac{1}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

Find a common denominator and then yeah.

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Can you help please?
harkovskaia [24]

Step-by-step explanation:

Mechanical advantage can be defined using distances:

Mechanical advantage = input distance / output distance

Or it can be defined using forces:

Mechanical advantage = output force / input force

Solving for the output force:

Output force = mechanical advantage × input force

Plugging in values:

Output force = 2.2 × 202 N

Output force = 444.4 N

3 0
2 years ago
Help please now help dont be childish will banned ​
belka [17]

Answer:

X, process, y

-2, 3(-2), -6

-1, 3(-1), -3

0, 3(0), 0

1, 3(1), 3

2, 3(2), 6

X = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2,

Y = -6, -3, 0, -3, -6

Step-by-step explanation:

Coordinates for the graph: (-2,-6), (-1,-3), (0,0), (1,3), (2,6)

Graph is the image I added onto this.

Solving for Y below:

3(-2)= -6

3(-1)= -3

3(0)= 0

3(1)= 3

3(2)= 6

Hope this helps.

5 0
2 years ago
For the rotation - 660°, find the coterminal angle from 0° < 0 < 360°, thequadrant and the reference angle.
guajiro [1.7K]

Given the angle:

-660°

Let's find the coterminal angle from 0≤θ≤360.

To find the coterminal angle, in the interval given, let's keep adding 360 degrees to the angle until we get the angle in the interval,

We have:

Coterminal angle = -660 + 360 = -300 + 360 = 60°

Therefore, the coterminal angle is 60°.

Since 60 degrees is between 0 to 90 degrees, is is quadrant I.

60 degrees lie in Quadrant I.

Also since it is in quadrant I, the reference angle is still 60 degrees.

ANSWER:

The coterminal angle is 60°, which lies in quadrant I, with a reference angle of 60°

3 0
1 year ago
4. A mail carrier earns time and a half for any overtime hours. If her
nata0808 [166]

Answer:

$14.70

Step-by-step explanation:

If she get paid the time and a half you would first divide $9.80 by 2 which is $4.90. Now that you have the half price you add the original time to it. $9.80+$4.90= 14.70 so that’s the answer

4 0
1 year ago
Write each ratio as a fraction in simplest form. The explain it’s meaning.
aliina [53]
Is this what you were asking for?

6 0
3 years ago
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