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galben [10]
3 years ago
14

The actual mechanical advantage of any machine is its__________divided by its________________

Physics
1 answer:
zaharov [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: Load divided by it effort

Explanation:

Mechanical advantage of any machine is its load divided by its effort

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Batteries can supply a steady flow of electrons.<br> True<br> False
Alecsey [184]

The answer is TRUE, batteries CAN supply a steady flow of electrons.

6 0
3 years ago
PLS ANSWER FAST WILL GIVE BRAINLEST!!!
Kipish [7]

Answer:

2 Newtons

Explanation:

F = ma

Therefore, your mass would be 1kg and your acceleration would be 2m/s/s

Plug the numbers into the equation:

(1kg)(2m/s/s)

which will equal

2 Newtons

8 0
3 years ago
In general, how do you find the average velocity of any object falling in a vacuum?
irina [24]
In general, how do you find the average velocity of any object falling in a vacuum? (Assume you know the final velocity.) Multiply the final velocity by final time. 3. Calculate : Distance, average velocity, and time are related by the equation, d = v • t A
5 0
2 years ago
Suppose that a public address system emits sound uniformly in all directions and that there are no reflections . The intensity a
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

I_{2}=2.39*10^{-5} W/m^{2}

Explanation:

The definition of the intensity in terms of power is given by:

I=\frac{P}{A}

Where:

  • P is the power
  • A is the area

If the sound emits uniformly in all directions and that there are no reflections, we can assume the geometry of the wave sound is spherical.

Let's recall the area of a sphere is A = 4\pi R^{2}

To the first location we have:

I_{1}=3*10^{-4} W/m^{2}=\frac{P}{4\pi 22^{2}}

and to the second location we have:

I_{2}=\frac{P}{4\pi 78^{2}}

Now, we can divide each intensity to find the second intensity.

\frac{I_{2}}{I_{1}}=\frac{\frac{P}{4\pi 78^{2}}}{\frac{P}{4\pi 22^{2}}}

I_{2}=I_{1}* \frac{22^{2}}{78^{2}}

I_{2}=3*10^{-4}\frac{22^{2}}{78^{2}}

I_{2}=2.39*10^{-5} W/m^{2}

I hope it helps you!

     

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The question is in the picture
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

e) 120m/s

Explanation:

When the ball reaches its highest point, its velocity becomes zero, meaning

v_0-gt = 0.

where v_0 is the initial velocity.

Solving for t we get

t = \dfrac{v_0}{g}

which is the time it takes the ball to reach the highest point.

Now, after the ball has reached its highest point, it turns around and falls downwards. After time t_0 since it had reached the highest point, the ball has traveled downwards and the velocity v_f it has gained is

v_f = gt_0,

and we are told that this is twice the initial velocity v_0; therefore,

v_f = 2v_0  = gt_0

which gives

t_0 = \dfrac{2v_0}{g}.

Thus, the total time taken to reach velocity 2v_0 is

t_{tot} = t+t_0 = \dfrac{v_0}{g}+\dfrac{2v_0}{g}

t_{tot} = \dfrac{3v_0}{g}.

This t_{tot}, we are told, is 36 seconds; therefore,

36= \dfrac{3v_0}{g},

and solving for v_0 we get:

v_0 = \dfrac{36g}{3}

v_0 = \dfrac{36s(10m/s^2)}{3}

\boxed{v_0 = 120m/s}

which from the options given is choice e.

7 0
3 years ago
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