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bearhunter [10]
2 years ago
6

Solenoid 2 has twice the radius and six times the number of turns per unit length as solenoid 1. The ratio of the magnetic field

in the interior of 2 to that in the interior of 1 is: 1/3 1 2 4 6
Physics
1 answer:
Xelga [282]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

6

Explanation:

The magnetic field inside a solenoid is given by the following formula:

B = \mu_{0}nI

where,

B = Magnetic Field Inside Solenoid

μ₀ = permittivity of free space

n = No. of turns per unit length

I = Current Passing through Solenoid

For Solenoid 1:

B_{1} = \mu_{0}n_{1}I  ------------------- equation 1

For Solenoid 2:

n₂ = 6n₁

Therefore,

B_{1} = \mu_{0}n_{2}I\\B_{1} = 6\mu_{0}n_{1}I  ----------------- equation 2

Diving equation 1 and equation 2:

\frac{B_{2}}{B_{1}} = \frac{6\mu_{0}nI}{\mu_{0}nI}\\\\\frac{B_{2}}{B_{1}} = 6

Hence, the correct option is:

<u>6</u>

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Explanation:

In mass-spring system, the velocity and the acceleration are in anti-phase, which means that when one of the two quantities is maximum, the other one is zero, and vice-versa.

In fact:

- When the displacement of the spring is zero (x=0), the velocity is maximum, due to conservation of energy. In fact, as the displacement is zero, the elastic potential energy of the system (given by \frac{1}{2}kx^2) is zero, therefore the kinetic energy (given by \frac{1}{2}mv^2) must be maximum, and so the velocity (v) is also maximum. On the cotnrary, acceleration (a) is directly proportional to the restoring force of the spring, given by

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- When the displacement of the spring is maximum, the velocity is zero, due to conservation of energy. In fact, as the displacement is maximum, the elastic potential energy of the system (given by \frac{1}{2}kx^2) is maximum, therefore the kinetic energy (given by \frac{1}{2}mv^2) must be zero, and so the velocity (v) is also zero. On the cotnrary, since acceleration (a) is directly proportional to the restoring force of the spring, given by

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A. when the mass has a speed of zero


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