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bearhunter [10]
2 years ago
6

Solenoid 2 has twice the radius and six times the number of turns per unit length as solenoid 1. The ratio of the magnetic field

in the interior of 2 to that in the interior of 1 is: 1/3 1 2 4 6
Physics
1 answer:
Xelga [282]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

6

Explanation:

The magnetic field inside a solenoid is given by the following formula:

B = \mu_{0}nI

where,

B = Magnetic Field Inside Solenoid

μ₀ = permittivity of free space

n = No. of turns per unit length

I = Current Passing through Solenoid

For Solenoid 1:

B_{1} = \mu_{0}n_{1}I  ------------------- equation 1

For Solenoid 2:

n₂ = 6n₁

Therefore,

B_{1} = \mu_{0}n_{2}I\\B_{1} = 6\mu_{0}n_{1}I  ----------------- equation 2

Diving equation 1 and equation 2:

\frac{B_{2}}{B_{1}} = \frac{6\mu_{0}nI}{\mu_{0}nI}\\\\\frac{B_{2}}{B_{1}} = 6

Hence, the correct option is:

<u>6</u>

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A 0.350kg bead slides on a curved fritionless wire,
LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

h2 = 0.092m

Explanation:

From a balance of energy from point A to point B, we get speed before the collision:

m1*g*h-\frac{m1*V_B^2}{2}=0  Solving for Vb:

V_B=\sqrt{2gh}=6.56658m/s

Since the collision is elastic, we now that velocity of bead 1 after the collision is given by:

V_{B'}=V_B*\frac{m1-m2}{m1+m2} = \sqrt{2gh}* \frac{m1-m2}{m1+m2}=-1.34316m/s

Now, by doing another balance of energy from the instant after the collision, to the point where bead 1 stops, we get the distance it rises:

m1*g*h2-\frac{m1*V_{B'}^2}{2}=0 Solving for h2:

h2 = 0.092m

6 0
3 years ago
the diagram shows a ray of light striking a mirror that is above a sink full of water explain what what will happen to the beam
ratelena [41]
The water will reflect some of the light
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One billiard ball is shot east at 2.2 m/s. A second, identical billiard ball is shot west at 0.80 m/s. The balls have a glancing
Leona [35]

Answer:

(a). The speed of the first ball after the collision is 1.95 m/s.

(b). The direction of the first ball after the collision is 44.16° due south of east.

Explanation:

Given that,

Velocity of one ball u₁= 2.2i m/s

Velocity of second ball u₂=- 0.80i m/s

Final velocity of the second ball v₂= 1.36j m/s

The mass of the identical balls are

m = m_{1}=m_{2}

(a). We need to calculate the speed of the first ball after the collision

Using law of conservation of momentum

m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=m_{1}v_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}

Along X- axis

m_{1}u_{1}+m_{2}u_{2}=m_{1}v_{1}

v_{1}=u_{1}+u_{2}

Put the value into the formula

v_{1}=2.2i-0.80i

v_{1}=1.4i\ m/s

Along Y-axis

0=m_{1}v_{1}+m_{2}v_{2}

m_{1}v_{1}=-m_{2}v_{2}

v_{1}=-v_{2}

Put the value into the formula

v_{1}=-1.36j\ m/s

Then the final speed of the first ball

v_{1}=\sqrt{(1.4)^2+(1.36)^2}

v_{1}=1.95\ m/s

(b) We need to calculate the direction of the first ball after the collision

Using formula of direction

\tan\theta=\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}

\tan\theta=\dfrac{-1.36}{1.4}

\theta=\tan^{-1}\dfrac{-1.36}{1.4}

\theta=-44.16^{\circ}

Negative sign shows the direction of first ball .

Hence, (a). The speed of the first ball after the collision is 1.95 m/s.

(b). The direction of the first ball after the collision is 44.16° due south of east.

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7 0
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The picture shows a device used to produce
lesya [120]
It would be wind energy
6 0
3 years ago
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