Answer:
Explanation: Two possible solutions
in the absence of friction
mgh = ½mv²
h = v²/2g = 24.4²(2(9.81) = 30.344... = 30.3 m
if enough rolling friction exists to keep the ball from sliding, but ignoring air resistance and assuming the ball is already rolling smoothly at the start
mgh = ½mv² + ½Iω²
mgh = ½mv² + ½((2/3)mR²)(v/R)²
2gh = v² + (2/3)v²
2gh = (5/3)v²
h = (5/6)v²/g
h = (5/6)24.4²/9.81 = 50.5742 = 50.6 m
Answer:
0.079 m or 79 mm
Explanation:
Using the equation of motion
v = √(2as)
Where v is the velocity
a is acceleration = 1400m/s²
s is the distance = 0.55 mm = 0.00055m
Therefore
= √(2 × 1400m/s² × 0.00055 m) = 1.54 m/s
Therefore; initial velocity = 1.54 m/s
Then we use the equation of motion s = v² / 2g
Take g = 9.8 m/s²
Therefore
= (1.54m/s)² / 19.6 m/s²
= 0.079 m or 79 mm
Answer:
c. clockwise
Explanation:
This is because, the magnetic field, B produced due to the downward flowing current in the straight wire is perpendicular to the plane of the rectangular conducting loop and directed outwards from it.
Since it also decreases as it goes from the top of the loop to the bottom of the loop (and also from left to right since B ∝ 1/r), there is a change in magnetic flux which is negative, and thus and induced emf or current is generated to oppose this change in magnetic flux which is generating the current according to Lenz's law. To generate a magnetic field in the opposite direction to that due to the straight wire, a current flowing in the clockwise direction must be generated in the loop.
So the answer is C. clockwise.
Answer:I think I’m not sure But I think that the force that would be accurated the car would be friction or something like that and to solve the equation you would do f/m
Explanation:
It just makes sense