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harkovskaia [24]
3 years ago
5

What is the kinetic energy of a 0.5 kg puppy that is running 1.5m/s

Physics
1 answer:
bija089 [108]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Well the answer is KE = 5.625E-7 i just don't know the units for it...

Hope this helps....... Stay safe and have a Merry Christmas!!!!!!!!!! :D

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Technology can best be defined as what?
jasenka [17]
B

Djdjsjdnkajdnsbsjsixhsjbsjsisahjsbxjsjsndnxnsjdd
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In levelling, the following staff readings were observed involving an inverted staff, A = 2.915 and B = -2.028. What is the rise
salantis [7]

Answer:

The rise from A to B is 0.887

Solution:

As per the question:

The following reading of an inverted staff is given as:

A = 2.915

B = -2.028

Here, for inverted staff, the greater reading shows greater elevation and lesser reading shows lower elevation.

Thus

The rise from A to B is given as:

A - B = 2.915 - 2.028 = 0.887

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose you lived in a pre-industrial society and needed to lift a heavy (20 kg) block a height of 5 m and had two choices for h
igomit [66]
Let's break the question into two parts:

1) The force needed in Ramp scenario.
2) The effort force needed in the lever scenario.

1. Ramp Scenario: 
In an incline, the only component of cart's weight(mg) that is in the direction of motion is mgsin \alpha. Therefore the effort force in this case must be equal or greater than mgsin \alpha.

Now we need to find \alpha. \alpha is the angle between the incline of the ramp and the ground. 

Since the height is 5m and the length of the ramp is 8m, sin \alpha would be 5/8 or 0.625. Now that you have sin \alpha, mutiple it with mg.

=> m*g*sin \alpha  = 20 * 10 * 5 / 8. (Taking g = 10 m/s² for simplicity) = 125N
Therefore, the minimum Effort force you would require in this case is 125N.

2. Lever Scenario:
Just apply "moment action" in this case, which is:
F_{e}  d_{e}  = F_{r}  d_{r}

F_{e} = ?

F_{r} = mg = 20 * 10 = 200N
d_{e} = 10m
d_{r} = 1m


Plug-in the values in the above equation:
F_{e} = 200/10= 20N


As 20N << 125N, the best choice is to use lever.

4 0
3 years ago
to 10 Hz. Superimposed on this signal is 60-Hz noise with an amplitude of 0.1 V. It is desired to attenuate the 60-Hz signal to
givi [52]

Answer:

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

Explanation:

For this case we can use the formula for the Butterworth filter gain given by:

[tec] G = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}}}[/tex]

Where:

G represent the transfer function and we want that G =0.1 since the desired signal is less than 10% of it's value

f_c = 10 Hz represent the corner frequency

f= 60 Hz represent the original frequency

n represent the filter order and that's the variable that we need to find

G \sqrt{1 +(\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}} = 1

If we square both sides we got:

G^2 (1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n}= 1

We divide both sides by G^2 and we got:

(1+\frac{f}{f_c})^{2n} = \frac{1}{G^2}

Now we can apply log on both sides and we got:

2n ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c}) = ln (\frac{1}{G^2})

And solving for n we got:

n = \frac{ ln (\frac{1}{G^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{f}{f_c})}

And replacing we got:

n = \frac{ln (\frac{1}{0.1^2})}{2ln(1+\frac{60}{10})}

n = \frac{4.60517}{3.8918}=1.18

And since n needs to be an integer the correct answer would be n=2 for the filter order.

7 0
3 years ago
Running at 1.55 m/s, Bruce, the 40.0 kg quarterback, collides with Biff, the 90.0 kg tackle, who is traveling at 7.0 m/s in the
Margarita [4]

Answer:Bruce is knocked backwards at  

14

m

s

.

Explanation:

This is a problem of momentum (

→

p

) conservation, where

→

p

=

m

→

v

and because momentum is always conserved, in a collision:

→

p

f

=

→

p

i

We are given that  

m

1

=

45

k

g

,  

v

1

=

2

m

s

,  

m

2

=

90

k

g

, and  

v

2

=

7

m

s

The momentum of Bruce (

m

1

) before the collision is given by

→

p

1

=

m

1

v

1

→

p

1

=

(

45

k

g

)

(

2

m

s

)

→

p

1

=

90

k

g

m

s

Similarly, the momentum of Biff (

m

2

) before the collision is given by

→

p

2

=

(

90

k

g

)

(

7

m

s

)

=

630

k

g

m

s

The total linear momentum before the collision is the sum of the momentums of each of the football players.

→

P

=

→

p

t

o

t

=

∑

→

p

→

P

i

=

→

p

1

+

→

p

2

→

P

i

=

90

k

g

m

s

+

630

k

g

m

s

=

720

k

g

m

s

Because momentum is conserved, we know that given a momentum of  

720

k

g

m

s

before the collision, the momentum after the collision will also be  

720

k

g

m

s

. We are given the final velocity of Biff (

v

2

=

1

m

s

) and asked to find the final velocity of Bruce.

→

P

f

=

→

p

1

f

+

→

p

2

f

→

P

f

=

m

1

v

1

f

+

m

2

v

2

f

Solve for  

v

1

:

v

1

f

=

→

P

f

−

m

2

v

2

f

m

1

Using our known values:

v

1

f

=

720

k

g

m

s

−

(

90

k

g

)

(

1

m

s

)

45

k

g

v

1

f

=

14

m

s

∴

Bruce is knocked backwards at  

14

m

s

.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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