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prohojiy [21]
3 years ago
15

Is air made of matter ?​evidence and reasoning.

Physics
1 answer:
Fiesta28 [93]3 years ago
4 0
Yes, air is matter because it is a gas composed mostly of nitrogen, oxygen, and argon, and gases do have mass because they’re molecules bouncing around a contained volume (here, the atmosphere)
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A rocket has landed on planet x, which has half the radius of earth. An astronaut onboard the rocket weighs twice as much on pla
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

Option (c) u0

Explanation:

The escape velocity has a formula as:

V = √(2gR)

Where V is the escape velocity,

g is the acceleration due to gravity

R is the radius of the earth.

Now, from the question, we were told that the escape velocity for the rocket taking off from earth is u0 i.e

V(earth) = u0

V(earth) = √(2gR)

u0 = √(2gR) => For the earth

Now, let us calculate the escape velocity for the rocket taking off from planet x. This is illustrated below below:

g(planet x) = 2g (earth) => since the weight of the astronaut is twice as much on planet x as on earth

R(planet x) = 1/2 R(earth) => planet x has half the radius of earth

V(planet x) =?

Applying the formula V = √(2gR), the escape velocity on planet x is obtained as follow:

V(planet x) = √(2g(x) x R(x))

V(planet x) = √(2 x 2g x 1/2R)

V(planet x) = √(2 x g x R)

V(planet x) = √(2gR)

The expression obtained for the escape velocity on planet x i.e V(planet x) = √(2gR), is exactly the same as that obtained for the earth i.e V(earth) = √(2gR)

Therefore,

V(planet x) = V(earth) = √(2gR)

But from the question, V(earth) is u0

Therefore,

V(planet x) = V(earth) = √(2gR) = u0

So, the escape velocity on planet x is u0

4 0
3 years ago
The engine of a locomotive exerts a constant force of 8.1*10^5 N to accelerate a train to 68 km/h. Determine the time (in min) t
Bumek [7]

Answer:443.1 s

Explanation:

Given

Engine of a locomotive exerts a force of 8.1\times 10^5 N

Mass of train=1.9\times 10^7

Final speed (v)=68 km/h \approx 18.88 m/s

F=ma

so acceleration(a) =\frac{F}{m}=\frac{8.1\times 10^5}{1.9\times 10^7}

a=0.042631 m/s^2

and acceleration is

a=\frac{v-u}{t}

0.042631=\frac{18.88-0}{t}

t=443.089 \approx 443.1 s

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A stationary speed gun emits a microwave beam at 2.10*10^10Hz. It reflects off a car and returns 1030 Hz higher. What is the spe
KIM [24]

Answer: V = 15 m/s

Explanation:

As  stationary speed gun emits a microwave beam at 2.10*10^10Hz. It reflects off a car and returns 1030 Hz higher. The observed frequency the car will be experiencing will be addition of the two frequency. That is,

F = 2.1 × 10^10 + 1030 = 2.100000103×10^10Hz

Using doppler effect formula

F = C/ ( C - V) × f

Where

F = observed frequency

f = source frequency

C = speed of light = 3×10^8

V = speed of the car

Substitute all the parameters into the formula

2.100000103×10^10 = 3×10^8/(3×10^8 -V) × 2.1×10^10

2.100000103×10^10/2.1×10^10 = 3×108/(3×10^8 - V)

1.000000049 = 3×10^8/(3×10^8 - V)

Cross multiply

300000014.7 - 1.000000049V = 3×10^8

Collect the like terms

1.000000049V = 14.71429

Make V the subject of formula

V = 14.71429/1.000000049

V = 14.7 m/s

The speed of the car is 15 m/s approximately.

8 0
2 years ago
We now have an algebraic expression with only one variable, which can be solved. Once we have that, we can plug it back into one
Len [333]

Answer:

A=1

B=-2

Explanation:

Part A and B of the question wasn't given, however, I attached the relevant parts to solve this question as follows.

From part B as attached, it shows that the right option is C which is

2A+3B=-4

Substituting B with 3A-5 then we form the second equation as shown

2A+3(3A-5)=-4

By simplifying the above equation, we obtain

2A+9A-15=-4

Re-arranging, then

11A=-4+15

Finally

11A=11

A=1

To obtain B, we already know that 3A-5 so substituting the value of A into the above then we obtain

B=3(1)-5=-2

Therefore, required values are 1 and -2

3 0
3 years ago
Two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer: The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than

the second

Explanation:

Since the two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets and wires. If the magnet In the first moves much faster than the second. Therefore:

The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than the second

Because the induced EMF is proportional to the induced current.

Where the induced EMF depends on the speed of the magnet according to the formula below

EMF = BVL

So, increase in speed of the magnet will cause more powerful induced current and emf

6 0
3 years ago
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