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mafiozo [28]
3 years ago
15

a car advertisement States that a certain car can accelerate from rest to70km/h in 7seconds find the car's average acceleration​

Physics
1 answer:
Aneli [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

<u>Acceleration</u><u> </u><u>is</u><u> </u><u>2</u><u>.</u><u>7</u><u>8</u><u> </u><u>m</u><u>/</u><u>s²</u>

Explanation:

Since the car is from rest, initial velocity, u is zero.

from first newton's equation of motion:

{ \bf{v = u + at}} \\

v is final velocity

u is initial velocity

a is acceleration

t is time

70 km/h is (70 × 1000 ÷ 3600) m/s = 19.44 m/s

{ \sf{19.44 = 0 + (a \times 7)}} \\ { \sf{7a = 19.44 }} \\ { \sf{a = 2.78 \:  {ms}^{ - 2} }}

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nata0808 [166]

Answer:

?

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Two wires each carry 10.0 A of current (in opposite directions) and are 2.50 mm apart. What is the magnetic field 37.0 cm away a
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

see answer below

Explanation:

Before we do any kind of calculation, we need to convert the proper units of the exercise. All the units of distance must be in meters, so, let's change distance of the wire, and the magnetic field to meters:

Separation between the wires are 2.5 mm:

2.5 mm * (1 m / 1000 mm) = 0.0025 m

The distance of P from the bottom of the wires is 37 cm:

37 cm * (1 m/100 cm) = 0.37 m

The distance of P from the top of the wires is just the sum of the two distances:

R = 0.37 + 0.0025 = 0.3725 m

Now that we have the distance, we can determine the magnetic field, using the following expression:

B = B(bottom) - B(top)   or just B₂ - B₁

And B = μ₀ I / 2πR

Replacing in the above expression we have:

B = μ₀ I / 2π ( 1/R₂ - 1/R₁)

Now we can determine the magnetic field:

B = (4πx10⁻⁷ * 10 / 2π) (1/0.37 - 1/0.3725)

<h2>B = 3.63x10⁻⁸ T</h2><h2></h2>

Which means that the magnetic field is out of the page.

Hope this helps

4 0
3 years ago
A car has 10000kg starts from rest and attains velocity of 20m/s in 5 seconds find the force
Rasek [7]
Ewan ko po ehh sorri po’ hahaha thanks me
7 0
3 years ago
A ball is thrown from ground level so as to just clear wall 4m height at distance 4m from wall and falls 14 m from wall . Veloci
kolbaska11 [484]
Ok, this is a 2d kinematics problem,  the falls 14 m part is confusing, I think it means in the x direction, but you don't need it anyway.

If we know it goes 4m into the air, we know  d = 4m (height of wall), we also know the acceleration a=-9.8m/s^2 (because gravity) and that the vertical velocity when it just clears the wall will be 0 m/s, which we'll call our final velocity (Vf). Using Vf^2 = Vi^2 +2a*d, we can solve this for Vi and drop Vf because it's zero to get: Vi = sqrt(-2ad), plug in numbers (don't forget a is negative) and you get 8.85 m/s in the vertical direction. The x-direction velocity requires that we solve the y-direction for time, using Vf= Vi + at, we solve for t, getting t= -Vi/a, plug in numbers t= -8.85/-9.8 = 0.9 s. Now we can use the simple v = d/t (because x-direction has no acceleration (a=0)), and plug in the distance to the wall and the time it takes to get there v = (4/.9) = 4.444 m/s, this is the velocity in the x direction, we use Pythagoras' theorem to find the total velocity, Vtotal = sqrt(Vx^2 + Vy^2), so Vtotal = sqrt(8.85^2+4.444^2) = 9.9m/s. Yay physics!
8 0
3 years ago
A 7-kg bowling ball moving at 4 m/s strikes a 1 kg bowling pin. If the ball slows to 2 m/s in 0.05 s, how much force does it exe
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

280 N

Explanation:

acceleration = v2-v1 / time taken = (2-4 )/ 0.05 = -40 m/s^2  ( neg sign indicates slowing down )

force exerted = ma = 7 kg x -40 m/s^2 = - 280 N ( neg sign means opposite direction of initial velocity )

since the 7 kg ball is slowing down, the  direction of force will be opposite of the initial velocity , and it will be 280 N

7 0
3 years ago
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