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levacccp [35]
3 years ago
6

What is the scientific saying/principle that explains why a hammer and a screwdriver, both made of steel, are used for different

tasks?
Physics
1 answer:
deff fn [24]3 years ago
3 0

Hammer and screwdriver perform different tasks because they are both simple machines.

A machine is simply a device that can be used to perform a task. This  machine can be any physical system or device designed to perform a specific task.

The efficiency of the machine describes the easy with which each machine or tool is able to use input power to overcome a task.

Machines are designed to overcome a particular task with little effort in order to increase its efficiency.

Hammer and screwdriver, are both examples of simple machines.

Thus, Hammer and screwdriver perform different tasks because they are both simple machines.

Learn more here: brainly.com/question/21387235

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A student was trying to find the relationship between mass and force. He placed four different masses on a table and pulled them
Gwar [14]

Answer:

B. There is a direct proportion between the mass and force listed in the table.

Explanation:

From the table, the values of force increases with increase in the value of mass.

if 5kg=25 N

Finding the contant of proportionality k;

k=25/5=5

thus M=k(F)...........where M is mass in kg and F is force in newton, then

M=5F

This show that for every value of mass, we get the value of Force if we multiply by a contant k=5

This means there is a direct proportionality relation between mass and force in the table.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What happens to metal railroad tracks during the heat of a summer day
Oksanka [162]
The railroad tracks will expand because the heat waves make them bigger

4 0
3 years ago
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The slider of mass m is released from rest in position A and slides without friction along the vertical-plane guide shown. Deter
Anuta_ua [19.1K]

The value of normal force as the slider passes point B is

  • 6 mg

The value of h when the normal force is zero

  • 3R/2

<h3>How to solve for the normal force</h3>

The normal force is calculated using the work energy principle which is applied as below

K₁ + U₁ = K₂

k represents kinetic energy

U represents potential energy

the subscripts 1,2 , and 3 = a, b, and c

for 1 to 2

K₁ + W₁ = K₂

0 + mg(h + R) = 0.5mv²₂

g(h + R) = 0.5v²₂

v²₂ = 2g(1.5R + R)

v²₂ = 2g(2.5R)

v²₂ = 5gR

Using summation of forces at B

Normal force, N  = ma + mg

N = m(a + g)

N = m(v²₂/R + g)

N = m(5gR/R + g)

N = 6mg

for 1 to 3

K₁ + W₁ = K₃ + W₃

0 + mgh = 0.5mv²₃ + mgR

gh = 0.5v²₃ + gR

0.5v²₃ = gh - gR

v²₃ = 2g(h - R)

at C

for normal force to be zero

ma = mg

v²₃/R = g

v²₃ = gR

and v²₃ = 2g(h - R)

gR = 2gh - 2gR

gR + 2gR = 2gh

3gR = 2gh

3R/2 = h

Learn more about normal force at:

brainly.com/question/20432136

#SPJ1

8 0
9 months ago
How far will an object move in 6 seconds if its average speed during that time is 45 m/s
babunello [35]

Answer:

270 Meters

Explanation:

45×6=270

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
During the experiment if you could double the breakaway magnetic force with all other quantities left unchanged, what is the new
sergiy2304 [10]
There are some missing information in the question.
However, since you are talking about magnetic force, I think you refer to the Lorentz force. When a particle of charge q and velocity v is immersed in a magnetic field of intensity B, the force acting on the particle is:
F=qvBsin\theta
where \theta is the angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the particle.
Therefore, if force F is doubled, then also the velocity v must be double of its initial value:
v=2v_0
6 0
2 years ago
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