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Kruka [31]
2 years ago
14

Does dropping a magnet down a copper tube produce a current in the tube? explain your answer.

Physics
1 answer:
Ratling [72]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The current generated in the pipe by the falling magnet is induced where the magnetic field is changing, which is only close to the magnet. Try slitting the pipe lengthwise along one side.

Explanation:

I neep your brainlist answer

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A container of gas is held at a constant volume. Which will most likely happen to the temperature if the pressure of the gas inc
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

With more particles there will be more collisions and so a greater pressure. The number of particles is proportional to pressure, if the volume of the container and the temperature remain constant. ... This happens when the temperature is increased.

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
How are the land area and the oceans affected during an ice age
amm1812
The land was frozen everywhere and a part of the ocean froze over to create a bridge between two countries. Some people may disagree with me over the ice bridge, though.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An automobile travels on a straight road for 42 km at 45 km/h. it then continues in the same direction for another 42 km at 90 k
Nina [5.8K]

Answer:

a) The average velocity is v = (60 km/h ; 0)

b) The average speed is 60 km/h

Explanation:

The velocity is a vector that has a magnitude and direction. The average speed is the distance traveled over time without taking into account the direction of the motion.

a)The average velocity is calculated as the displacement over time:

v = Δx/Δt

where

v = velocity

Δx = final position - initial position = traveled distance relative to the center of the reference system.

Δt = final time - initial time (initial time is usually = 0)

We know that the displacement is 84 km but we do not know the time. It can be calculated from the two parts of the trip.

In part 1:

v = 45 km/h = 42 km / t

t = 0.93 h

In part 2:

v = 90 km/h = 42 km / t

t = 42 km / 90 km/h

t = 0.47 h

The time of travel is 0.47 h + 0.93 h = 1.4 h

The average velocity will be:

v = 84 km / 1.4 h = 60 km/h

Expressed as a vector in a 2-dimension plane:

v = (60 km/h; 0)

b) The average speed is calculated as the distance traveled over time. Note that in this case, the distance is equal to the displacement since the direction of the motion is always in one direction. But if the direction of the second part of the trip would have been the opposite to the direction of the first part, the displacement would have been 0 (final position - initial position = 0, because final position = initial position), then, the average velocity would have been 0. In change, the average speed would have been the distance traveled (84 km, 42 km in one direction and 42 km in the other) over time.

Then:

average speed = 84 km / 1.4 h = 60 km/h

c) see attached figure.    

5 0
3 years ago
It is difficult to extinguish a fire on a crude oil tanker, because each liter of crude oil releases 2.80 × 10 7 J of energy whe
boyakko [2]

Answer:

10.4L of water is expended when 1L of crude oil is burned.

Explanation:

This problem requires us to calculate the volume of water that must be expended to absorb the amount of energy released from the burning of 1.00L of crude oil.

In going from water at 18.5°C to steam at 285°C, the water undergoes 3 stages:

Absorption of heat from 18.5°C to 100°C >> phase change to vapour at 100°C >> heating from 100°C to steam at 285°C

Given Cw = 4186 J/kg°C and Cs = 2020 J/kg°C. The latent heat of of vaporization of water Lv = 2.256 ×10⁶ J/kg

The total heat absorbed in the process per kilogram

H = Cw × (100 – 18.5) + Lv + Cs × (285 – 100)

H = 4186 × 81.5 + 2. 256 ×10⁶ + 2020× 185

= 2.696 ×10⁶ J/kg

The amount of heat in J/L of water needed can be calculated as follows:

Density of water = 1000kg/m³ =

1000 kg/m³ × 1m³/1000L = 1kg/L (Basically conversion of density in kg/m³ to kg/L)

Let the volume of water needed be V litres.

Then the mass of water that must be expended = Density × Volume

= 1kg/L × V L = Vkg

The heat that would be absorbed by the water when 1L of crude oil is burned is V×H

= 2.696×10⁶ × V

This is also equal to 2.80×10⁷ J of energy (given).

So,

2.696×10⁶V = 2.8×10⁷

V = (2.80×10⁷)/(2.696×10⁶) = 10.4L of water.

3 0
3 years ago
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n the figure, a uniform ladder 12 meters long rests against a vertical frictionless wall. The ladder weighs 400 N and makes an a
Leto [7]

Since the ladder is standing, we know that the coefficient of friction is at least something. This [gotta be at least this] friction coefficient can be calculated. As the man begins to climb the ladder, the friction can even be less than the free-standing friction coefficient. However, as the man climbs the ladder, more and more friction is required. Since he eventually slips, we know that friction is less than what's required at the top of the ladder.

 

The only "answer" to this problem is putting lower and upper bounds on the coefficient. For the lower one, find how much friction the ladder needs to stand by itself. For the most that friction could be, find what friction is when the man reaches the top of the ladder.

Ff = uN1

Fx = 0 = Ff + N2

Fy = 0 = N1 – 400 – 864

N1 = 1264 N

Torque balance

T = 0 = N2(12)sin(60) – 400(6)cos(60) – 864(7.8)cos(60)

N2 = 439 N

Ff = 439= u N1

U = 440 / 1264 = 0.3481

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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