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Assoli18 [71]
3 years ago
10

Sam blinks every 15 seconds and Martha blinks every 10 seconds. They blink together at midnight. How many seconds will pass befo

re they blink together again
Mathematics
1 answer:
irga5000 [103]3 years ago
7 0
They will blink together every 30 seconds.

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2.00/6 = $0.33 rounded to the nearest penny, it actually is $0.333333333333 (infinite)

I hope this helped you out :)
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Consider the equation x 5 − 2 = 11.
Alla [95]
2.6 would be the proper answer to this question
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zysi [14]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which equation is represented by the graph below? y=ln x y=ln x+1 y=e^x y=e^x+1
Illusion [34]

Answer:

y = e^x

Step-by-step explanation:

The fastest way to do this is to use a graphing calc or an online graphing platform and check to see which graph matches the one given.

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that W1, W2, and W3 are independent uniform random variables with the following distributions: Wi ~ Uni(0,10*i). What is
nadya68 [22]

I'll leave the computation via R to you. The W_i are distributed uniformly on the intervals [0,10i], so that

f_{W_i}(w)=\begin{cases}\dfrac1{10i}&\text{for }0\le w\le10i\\\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

each with mean/expectation

E[W_i]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty wf_{W_i}(w)\,\mathrm dw=\int_0^{10i}\frac w{10i}\,\mathrm dw=5i

and variance

\mathrm{Var}[W_i]=E[(W_i-E[W_i])^2]=E[{W_i}^2]-E[W_i]^2

We have

E[{W_i}^2]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty w^2f_{W_i}(w)\,\mathrm dw=\int_0^{10i}\frac{w^2}{10i}\,\mathrm dw=\frac{100i^2}3

so that

\mathrm{Var}[W_i]=\dfrac{25i^2}3

Now,

E[W_1+W_2+W_3]=E[W_1]+E[W_2]+E[W_3]=5+10+15=30

and

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]=E\left[\big((W_1+W_2+W_3)-E[W_1+W_2+W_3]\big)^2\right]

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]=E[(W_1+W_2+W_3)^2]-E[W_1+W_2+W_3]^2

We have

(W_1+W_2+W_3)^2={W_1}^2+{W_2}^2+{W_3}^2+2(W_1W_2+W_1W_3+W_2W_3)

E[(W_1+W_2+W_3)^2]

=E[{W_1}^2]+E[{W_2}^2]+E[{W_3}^2]+2(E[W_1]E[W_2]+E[W_1]E[W_3]+E[W_2]E[W_3])

because W_i and W_j are independent when i\neq j, and so

E[(W_1+W_2+W_3)^2]=\dfrac{100}3+\dfrac{400}3+300+2(50+75+150)=\dfrac{3050}3

giving a variance of

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]=\dfrac{3050}3-30^2=\dfrac{350}3

and so the standard deviation is \sqrt{\dfrac{350}3}\approx\boxed{116.67}

# # #

A faster way, assuming you know the variance of a linear combination of independent random variables, is to compute

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]

=\mathrm{Var}[W_1]+\mathrm{Var}[W_2]+\mathrm{Var}[W_3]+2(\mathrm{Cov}[W_1,W_2]+\mathrm{Cov}[W_1,W_3]+\mathrm{Cov}[W_2,W_3])

and since the W_i are independent, each covariance is 0. Then

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]=\mathrm{Var}[W_1]+\mathrm{Var}[W_2]+\mathrm{Var}[W_3]

\mathrm{Var}[W_1+W_2+W_3]=\dfrac{25}3+\dfrac{100}3+75=\dfrac{350}3

and take the square root to get the standard deviation.

8 0
3 years ago
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