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LUCKY_DIMON [66]

3 years ago

10

If everything with mass is attracted to every other thing with mass, why doesn’t all the matter in the universe pull together in

a giant ball of stuff?

2 answers:

kupik [55]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

i need more info

Explanation:

ale4655 [162]3 years ago

3 0

It simply doesn’t feel the gravitational of the other matter until it was too late to form a clump.

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What is the difference in the speed of sound on a warm day versus on a cold day?

seraphim [82]

The sun is bright and when its cold there is no sun

4 0

3 years ago

Which tuning forks will give rise to a beat frequency of 20 Hz when sounded together with a 240 Hz tuning fork?

Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Use the concept of beat frequency to find the applicable final freqeuncy for 20Hz beat frequency.

Beat can be defined as 'the interference pattern between two sounds of slightly different frequencies0

The expression for beat frequency is given as

$f_{beat} = |f_1-f_2|$

Where,

$f_2 =$ Final frequency

$f_1 =$ Initial frequency

The beat frequency for us is 25Hz and the initial frequency is 240Hz, then

$20= |f_2-240|$

Being an absolute value, two values are possible, both in addition and subtraction:

$f_2 = 240 \pm 20$

The two possible values are

$f_2 = 220Hz$

$f_2 = 260Hz$

3 0

3 years ago

REDDIT You look at a circular loop of wire such that the plane of the loop is perpendicular to your line of vision. The loop has

sergiy2304 [10]

Answer:

The circular loop experiences a constant force which is always directed towards the center of the loop and tends to compress it.

Explanation:

Since the magnetic field, B points in my direction and the current, I is moving in a clockwise direction, the current is always perpendicular to the magnetic field and will thus experience a constant force, F = BILsinФ where Ф is the angle between B and L.

Since the magnetic field is in my direction, it is perpendicular to the plane of the circular loop and thus perpendicular to L where L = length of circular loop. Thus Ф = 90° and F = BILsin90° = BIL

According to Fleming's left-hand rule, the fore finger representing the magnetic field, the middle finger represent in the current and the thumb representing the direction of force on the circular loop.

At each point on the circular loop, the force is always directed towards the center of the loop and thus tends to compress it.

<u>So, the circular loop experiences a constant force which is always directed towards the center of the loop and tends to compress it.</u>

3 0

3 years ago

The current theory of the structure of the

IRISSAK [1]

1) The mass of the continent is $3.3\cdot 10^{21} kg$

2) The kinetic energy of the continent is 624 J

3) The speed of the jogger must be 4 m/s

Explanation:

1)

We start by finding the volume of the continent. We have:

$L = 5850 km = 5.85\cdot 10^6 m$ is the side

$t = 35 km = 3.5\cdot 10^4 m$ is the depth

So the volume is

$V=L^2 t = (5.85\cdot 10^6)^2 (3.5\cdot 10^4)=1.20\cdot 10^{18} m^3$

We also know that its density is

$d=2750 kg/m^3$

Therefore, we can find the mass by multiplying volume by density:

$m=dV=(2750)(1.20\cdot 10^{18})=3.3\cdot 10^{21} kg$

2)

The kinetic energy of the continent is given by:

$K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

where

$m=3.3\cdot 10^{21} kg$ is its mass

v = 3.2 cm/year is the speed

We have to convert the speed into m/s. We have:

3.2 cm = 0.032 m

$1 year = 1(365)(24)(60)(60)=3.15\cdot 10^7 s$

So, the speed is:

$v=\frac{0.032 m}{3.15 \cdot 10^7 s}=1.02\cdot 10^{-9} m/s$

So, we can now find the kinetic energy:

$K=\frac{1}{2}(1.20\cdot 10^{21})(1.02\cdot 10^{-9})^2=624 J$

3)

Here we have a jogger of mass

m = 78 kg

And the jogger has the same kinetic energy of the continent, so

K = 624 J

The kinetic energy of the jogger is given by

$K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

where v is the speed of the jogger.

Solving for v, we find the speed that the jogger must have:

$v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(624)}{78}}=4 m/s$

Learn more about kinetic energy:

brainly.com/question/6536722

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0

3 years ago

What is the new pressure of 150 ml of a gas that is compressed to 50 ml when the original pressure was 3.0 atm and the temperatu

Firlakuza [10]

Answer: 9.0 atm

Explanation:

To calculate the new pressure, we use the equation given by Boyle's law. This law states that pressure is directly proportional to the volume of the gas at constant temperature.

The equation given by this law is:

$P_1V_1=P_2V_2$

where,

$P_1\text{ and }V_1$ are initial pressure and volume.

$P_2\text{ and }V_2$ are final pressure and volume.

We are given:

$P_1=3.0atm\\V_1=150mL\\P_2=?mmHg\\V_2=50mL$

Putting values in above equation, we get:

$3.0\times 150mL=P_2\times 50mL\\\\P_2=9.0atm$

Thus new pressure of 150 ml of a gas that is compressed to 50 ml is 9.0 atm

5 0

3 years ago