Can someone please give me the answers to this? ... please ...
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We have that F=ma from the 2nd Newton law where F is the force, m is the mass and a is the acceleration. Suppose we have that F' is the new force and m' is the new mass. Then, we have that a'=F'/m' still, by rearranging Newton's law. We are given that F'=2F and m'=m/2. Hence,
But now, we have from F=ma, that a=F/m and we are given that a=1m/s^2.
We can substitute thus, a'=4a=4*1m/s^2=4m/s^2.
But now, we have from F=ma, that a=F/m and we are given that a=1m/s^2.
We can substitute thus, a'=4a=4*1m/s^2=4m/s^2.