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Sholpan [36]

2 years ago

"\huge\mathfrak{Question:-}" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula">
Why does time seem to flow only in one direction?

Physics

2 answers:

Thepotemich [5.8K]2 years ago

5 0

Time seem to flow only in one direction because if it started to go in backward direction that would break the second law of thermodynamics. We do not find time to be moving in any direction because time is not an object that can move nor is it a force that can move any object.

lbvjy [14]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

hii how are you.

apka naam kya hai Aur age apki please tell me.

where are you from.

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A 1200-kg car initially at rest undergoes constant acceleration for 9.4 s, reaching a speed of 11 m/s. It then collides with a s

Natalka [10]

To solve this problem we will apply the principle of conservation of energy and the definition of kinematic energy as half the product between mass and squared velocity. So,

$KE_i = KE_f$

$KE_f = \frac{1}{2} mv^2$

Here,

m = Mass

V = Velocity

Replacing,

$KE_f = \frac{1}{2} (12000)(11)^2$

$KE_f = 72600J$

Therefore the final kinetic energy of the two car system is 72.6kJ

8 0

3 years ago

a man uses a 900 watt electric iron to press his clothes for an average of 4 hours a week for five weeks if the cost of an elect

ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

54 Kobo

Explanation:

Units of <u>electricity</u> are measured in kilowatt hours (kWh).

Given information:

900 watt electric iron
Appliance usage = 4 hours a week for 5 weeks
Unit cost of electricity = 3 Kobo per kWh

Convert the wattage of the electric iron from watts to kilowatts.

1000 watts (W) = 1 kilowatt (kW)

⇒ 900 watts = 1 ÷ 1000 = 0.9 kilowatts

This means that the power consumption of the electric iron is 0.9 kW per hour of use.

Total hours spent pressing clothes:

= 4 hours per week for 5 weeks

= 4 × 5

= 20 hours

<u>Total power consumption</u>:

= number of kW × number of hours

= 0.9 × 20

= 18 kWh

To find the <u>total cost</u>, multiply the total kWh by the cost per kWh:

⇒ Cost = 18 × 3 = 54 Kobo

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The width of the central maxima, formed from light of wavelength 575 nm behind a single slit that has a width of 115 μm, is 1.15

Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

L = 1.15 m

Explanation:

The diffraction phenomenon is described by the equation

a sin θ = m λ

Where a is the width of the slit, λ the wavelength and m is an integer, the order of diffraction is left.

The diffraction measurements are made on a screen that is far from the slit, and the angles in the experiment are very small, let's use trigonometry

tan θ = y / L

tan θ = sint θ / cos θ≈ sin θ

We substitute in the first equation

a (y / L) = m λ

The first maximum occurs for m = 1

The distance is measured from the center point of maximum, which coincides with the center of the slit, in this case the distance is the total width of the central maximum, so the distance (y) measured from the center is

y = 1.15 / 2 = 0.575 cm

y = 0.575 10⁻² m

Let's clear the distance to the screen (L)

L = a y / λ

Let's calculate

L = 115 10⁻⁶ 0.575 10⁻² / 575 10⁻⁹

L = 1.15 m

3 0

3 years ago

when an object falls to the ground, only the object moves down but the earth's motion is not noticeable.why?

vlada-n [284]

Both the object and earth pulls each other towards itself but since the mass and pulling force of objects are very small the pulling force of objects are negligible.

7 0

3 years ago

A point charge q1=2.0μC is located on the positive y axis at y=0.30m, and an identical charge q2 is at the origin. Find the magn

dalvyx [7]

Answer:

(A) 0.279N at angle 38.02°

(B) 0.701N

Explanation:

(A) The net force on q3 is given as:

F = Fxi + Fyj

Fx is the x component of the force

Fy is the y component of the force

Fx = -F(1, 3)cos(90 - x) + F(2, 3)cos0

Fy = -F(2, 3)cosx - F(2, 3)cos90 = -F(2, 3)cosx

First let us find y and angle x from the diagram.

Using Pythagoras theorem,

y² = 0.3² + 0.4²

y² = 0.25

y = 0.5m

Using SOHCAHTOA to find x,

sinx = 0.4/0.5

x = 53.13°

Electrostatic force, F is given as:

F = kqQ/r²

Where k = Coulumbs constant

F(1,3) = (k*q1*q3) / r²

F(1, 3) = (9 * 10^9 * 2.0 * 10^(-6) * 4.0 * 10^(-6)) / (0.5²)

F(1, 3) = 0.288N

F(2,3) = (k*q2*q3) / r²

F(2, 3) = (9 * 10^9 * 2.0 * 10^(-6) * 4.0 * 10^(-6)) / (0.4²)

F(2, 3) = 0.45N

Therefore,

Fx = -0.288cos36.87 + 0.45

Fx = 0.22N

Fy = 0.288cos53.13

Fy = 0.172N

=> F = 0.22i + 0.172j

The magnitude of the force will be

F(mag) = √(0.22² + 0.172²)

F(mag) = 0.279N

The direction of the force makes will be

tanθ = Fy/Fx

tanθ = 0.172/0.22 = 0.781

θ = 38.02° to the x axis.

(B) q2 = - 2.0 * 10^(-6)

This implies that:

F(2,3) = (k*q2*q3) / r²

F(2, 3) = (9 * 10^9 * -2.0 * 10^(-6) * 4.0 * 10^(-6)) / (0.4²)

F(2, 3) = -0.45N

Therefore,

Fx = -0.288cos36.87 - 0.45

Fx = -0.68N

Fy = 0.172N

=> F = - 0.68i + 0.172j

The magnitude of the force will be

F(mag) = √((-0.68)² + 0.172²)

F(mag) = 0.701N

tanθ = 0.172/0.68

θ = 14.19° to the x axis

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers